Biotechnology Principles and Processes

1. The enzyme used to join the fragments of DNA during the process of replication is-
A. DNA polymerase
B. DNA ligase
C. Endonuclease
D. helicase

2. Bacteria protect themselves from viruses by fragmenting viral DNA upon entry with—
A. Methylase
B. Endonucleases
C. Ligases
D. exonucleases

3. The enzyme used for the purpose of joining a novel gene with host DNA is—
A. endonuclease
B. helicase
C. ligase
D. polymerase

4. The blotting techniques used for separation of proteins is called—
A. Eastern blotting
B. Southern blotting
C. Western blotting
D. Northern blotting

5. Agarose extracted from the sea weeds is used
A. PCR amplification
B. Electroporation
C. gel electrophoresis
D. cybrid production

6. Hin d II cuts DNA molecule at a specific point by recognising a specific sequence of—
A. 2 base pairs
B. 3 base pairs
C. 5 base pairs
D. 6 base pairs

7. Restriction endonucleases—
A. are synthesised by bacteria as part of their defence mechanism
B. are used for in vitro DNA synthesis
C. are used in genetic engineering for ligation of two DNA Molecules
D. are present in mammalian cells for degradation of DNA when the cell dies.

8. One of the methods by which DNA cannot be transferred to the host cell is by—
A. Microinjection
B. gene gun
C. disarmed pathogen vectors
D. polymerase chain reaction

9. Which one of these is not a tool of recombinant DNA technology?
A. Restriction enzyme
B. Vector
C. Polymerase enzyme
D. Introns

10. With respect to DNA fragmentation.
Statement A : Gel electrophoresis and elution are two important processes.
Statement B : After staining with ethidium bromide it has to be exposed to UV light.
A. only A is correct
B. both A and B are correct statements
C. only B is correct
D. only A is correct and B is not correct.

11. The function of a selectable marker is—
A. eliminating transformants and permitting nontransformants
B. identify ori site
C. elimination of non-transformants and permitting transformants
D. to destroy recognition sites

12. With respect to DNA fragmentation-
Statement A : Gel electrophoresis and elution are two important processes.
Statement B : After staining with ethidium bromide it has to be exposed to UV light.
A. only A is correct
B. both A and B are correct statements
C. only B is correct
D. only A is correct and B is not correct

13. Select the wrong statement.
A. The presence of chromogenic substrate gives blue colour colonies, if the plasmid in the bacteria does not have an insert.
B. Retroviruses in animals have the ability to transform normal cells into cancerous cells.
C. In microinjection, cells are bombarded with high velocity microparticles of gold or tungsten coated with DNA.
D. Since DNA is a hydrophilic molecule it cannot pass through cell membranes.

14. Which of the following is not a characteristic of pBR322 vector?
A. It is the first artificial cloning vector constructed in 1977 by Boliver and Rodriguez.
B. It is the most widely used, versatile and easily manipulated vector.
C. It has two antibiotic resistance genes, tetR and amp.
D. It does not have restriction site for Sal l.

15. How are transformants selected from non-transformants?
A. Presence of more than one recognition site in the vector DNA.
B. Presence of alien DNA into the vector DNA results into insertional inactivation of selectable marker.
C. Antibiotic resistance gene gets inactivated due to insertion of alien DNA.
D. Both (b) and (c)

16. Which vector can clone only a small fragment of DNA?
A. Bacterial Artificial Chromosome
B. Yeast Artificial Chromosome
C. Plasmid
D. Cosmid

17. Commonly used vectors for human genome sequencing are—
B. BAC and YAC
C. expression vectors
D. T/A cloning vectors

18. In Vitro clonal propagation in plants is characterised by-
B. northern blotting
C. electrophoresis and HPLC
D. microscopy

19. In order to induce the bacterial uptake of plasmids, the bacteria are made ‘competent‘ by first with—
A. sodium chloride
B. calcium chloride
C. magnesium chloride
D. potassium chloride

20. Which of the following technique is most widely employed to check the progress of restriction enzyme digestion?
A. Agarose gel electrophoresis
B. Centrifugafion
C. Polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis

Environmental Issues Excretory Products and their Elimination
Biodiversity and Conservation Body Fluids and Circulation
Ecosystem Breathing and Respiration
Organisms and Populations Digestion and Absorption
Biotechnology and its Application Plant Growth
Biotechnology Principles and Processes Respiration in Plants
Microbes in Human Welfare Photosynthesis
Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production Mineral Nutrition
Human Health and Disease Transport in Plants
Evolution Cell Cycle
Molecular Basic of Inheritance Biomolecules
Principle of Inheritance Cell the Unit of Life
Reproductive Health Structural Organisation
Human Reproduction Anatomy of Flowering Plants
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants Morphology of Flowering Plants
Reproduction in Organisms Animal Kingdom
Chemical Coordination Plant Kingdom
Neural Control and Coordination Biological Classification
Locomotion and Movement The Living World

21. Bioreactors are useful in—
A. separation and purification of a product
B. processing of large volumes of culture
C. micro-injection
D. isolation of genetic material

22. The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a technique that is used for—
A. in vivo replication of specific DNA sequence using thermostable DNA polymerase
B. in vitro synthesis of mRNA
C. in vitro replication of specific DNA sequence using thermostable DNA polymerase
D. in vivo synthesis of mRNA

23. The first recombinant DNA was constructed by linking an antibiotic resistant gene with the native plasmid of—
A. Escherichia coli
B. Salmonella typhimurium
C. Clostridium butylicum
D. Bacillus thuringiensis

24. Identify the DNA segment which is not a palindromic sequence.
A. 5′ GGATCC 3′ 3′ GGATCC 5′
B. 3′ GAATTC 5′ 3′ CTTAAG 5′
D. 5‘ CCCGGG 3′ 3’GGGCCC 5’

25. EcoRl is-
A. used to join two DNA fragments
B. a restriction enzyme
C. the abbreviation for bacterium Escherichia coli
D. a plasmid

26. Identify the desirable characteristics for a plasmid used in rDNA technology from the following.
A. Ability to multiply and express outside the host in a bioreactor
B. A highly active promoter
C. A site at which replication can be initiated
D. One or more identifiable marker genes
E. One or more unique restriction sites
A. A, C, D and E only
B. A, C and E only
C. B, C and E only
D. B, C, D and E only

27. Which of the following is not correctly matched for the organism and its cell wall degrading enzyme?
A. Algae — Methylase
B. Fungi — Chitinase
C. Bacteria — Lysozyme
D. Plant cells — Cellulase

28. DNA fragments generated by the restriction endonucieases in a chemical reaction can be separated by—
A. Electrophoresis
B. restriction mapping
C. centrifugation
D. polymerase chain reaction

29. The colonies of recombinant bacteria appear white in contrast to blue colonies of non-recombinant bacteria because of—
A. insertional inactivation of alpha galactosidase in recombinant bacteria
B. inactivation of glycosidase enzyme in recombinant bacteria
C. non—recombinant bacteria containing beta galactosidase
D. insertional inactivation of alpha galactosidase in non-recombinant bacteria

30. Which of the following is a cloning vector?
A. DNA of Salmonella typhimurium
B. Ti plasmid
C. Any DNA containing antibiotic resistance genes
D. Ori minus pBR322

31. During the process of isolation of DNA, chilled ethanol is added to-
A. precipitate DNA
B. break open the cell to release DNA
C. facilitate action of restriction enzymes
D. remove proteins such as histones

32. During amplification of gene using PCR, Taq polymerase is used between—
A. denaturation and annealing
B. annealing and extension
C. extension and amplification
D. none of the above

33. For transformation, micro-particles coated with DNA to be bombarded with gene gun are made up of—
A. silver or platinum
B. platinum or zinc
C. silicon or platinum
D. gold or tungsten.

34. PCR and restriction fragment length polymorphism are the methods for—
A. study of enzymes
B. genetic transformation
C. DNA sequencing
D. genetic fingerprinting

35. Which one is a true statement regarding DNA polymerase used in PCR?
A. It is used to ligate introduced DNA in recipient cells.
B. It serves as a selected marker.
C. It is isolated from a virus.
D. it remains active at high temperature.

36. What is the criterion for DNA fragments movement on agarose gel during gel electrophoresis?
A. The larger the fragment size, the farther it moves.
B. The smaller the fragment size, the farther it moves.
C. Positively charged fragments move to farther end.
D. Negatively charged fragments do not move.

37. The process of separation and purification of expressed protein before marketing is called-
A. upstream processing
B. downstream processing
C. bioprocessing
D. postproduction processing

38. The DNA fragments separated on an agarose gel can be visualised after staining with-
A. Bromophenol blue
B. Acetocarmine
C. Aniline blue
D. Ethidium bromide

39. A gene whose expression helps to identify transformed cell is known as-
A. Selectable marker
B. Vector
C. Plasmid
D. Structural gene

40. Which of the following restriction enzymes produces blunt ends?
A. Sal I
B. Xho I
C. Eco RV
D. Hind III

41. A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by the same restriction endonuclease can be joined to form a recombinant plasmid using—
A. Ligase
B. Taq polymerase
C. polymerase III
D. EcoRI

42. Which of the following is not a component of downstream processing?
A. Separation
B. Purification
C. Preservation
D. expression

43. Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for-
A. purification of product
B. addition of preservatives to the product
C. availability of oxygen throughout the process
D. ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture vessel.

44. Which of the following is not a feature of the plasmids?
A. Transferable
B. single-stranded
C. Independent replication
D. circular structure

45. Which of the following is a restriction endonuclease?
A. DNasel
B. Hind II
C. RNase
D. Protease

46. The Taq polymerase enzyme is obtained from—
A. Bacillus subtilis
B. Pseudomonas pufida
C. Thermus aquaticus
D. Thiobacillus ferroxidans

47. Which one of the following statement is wrong with respect to separation of DNA fragments on gel electrophoresis?
(i) The DNA fragments resolve according to their size.
(ii) The DNA fragments move towards anode under electric field through the matrix.
(iii) The smaller DNA fragments separate first.
(iv) The commonly used matrix is agarose gel.
A. (i) & (ii)
B. (iii) & (iv)
C. (ii) & (iii)
D. none of these

48. Most suitable method of introducing alien DNA into a plant cell is—
A. Lipofection
B. Biolistics
C. heat shock method
D. microinjection

49. Elution means-
A. making the DNA bands visible under UV Radiation
B. separation of DNA fragments on agarose gel
C. isolating alien DNA from the choice organism
D. cutting and extraction of DNA bands from the agarose gel.

50. Plasmid vector in DNA recombinant technology means-
A. a virus that transfers gene to bacteria.
B. extra-chromosomal autonomously replicating circular DNA.
C. any fragment of DNA carrying desirable gene.
D. sticky end of DNA.

51. Which organism is used to transfer T-DNA?
A. Streptomyces hygroscopicus
B. Agrobacterium tumefqciens
C. Salmonella typhi
D. Escherichia coli

52. Select the correct order of processing of PCR.
A. Extension, primer annealing, denaturation
B. Denaturation, primer annealing, extension
C. Denaturation, extension, primer annealing
D. Primer annealing, denaturation, extension

53. The cutting of DNA at specific location became possible with the discovery of—
A. selectable markers
B. ligases
C. restrction enzymes
D. probes

54. The DNA molecule to which the gene of interest is integrated for cloning is called—
A. Template
B. Carrier
C. transformer
D. vector

55. Restriction endonucleases are—
A. used for in vitro DNA synthesis
B. synthesised by bacteria as part of their defence mechanism
C. present in mammalian cells for degradation of DNA when the cell dies
D. used in genetic engineering for ligating two DNA molecules.