Community Medicine MCQ

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Community Medicine MCQ

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MCQ Papers on Community Medicine

1. Recommendation of Bhore Committee 1946 includes all except
(1) Integration of preventive and curative services
(2) One primary health centre for 40,000 population in rural area
(3) Three months training in preventive & social medicine
(4) Three medical officers for each primary health centre with 100 beded facility

2. Program to eliminate poverty and improve quality of life of rural population is
(1) Integrated program on economy
(2) Integrated rural development program
(3) Basic need program for rural population
(4) Integrated income & education program

3. Following is not a step of planning cycle :
(1) Formulate health problem
(2) Assign priorities among objectives
(3) Priorities are set as per government interest and policy
(4) Evaluate results as per satisfaction of politicians and Government’s interest

4. First National health policy approved by parliament in the year
(1) 1983
(2) 1989
(3) 1990
(4) 1993

5. Which one of the followings is a false statement regarding to objectives of national population policy 2000 ?
(1) To achieve replacement level total a fertility rate.
(2) Free school education up to age 14
(3) Increase age of marriage for girls.
(4) Hundred percent institutional deliveries.

6. PCPNDT (Pre-conception and Prenatal Diagnostic Technique) Act is to prevent
(1) In-vitro fertilization for sex selection
(2) Birth defects among girl child
(3) Female foeticide
(4) Female suicide due to sex selection during pregnancy

7. What percent of known hypertension and diabetes individuals at house hold level should maintain controlled status by the year 2025, under national health policy 2017 ?
(1) 40
(2) 60
(3) 80
(4) 90

8. In GOBI-FFF campaign of UNICEF, three F denotes
(1) Female education, Female empowerment and Female reservation.
(2) Female education, Family Planning and Food security.
(3) Female education, Food fortification and Female foeticide.
(4) Female education, Fertilizer reduction and Farming techniques.

9. Bioterrorism include all except
(1) Anthrax (B anthracis)
(2) Plague (Yersinia pestis)
(3) Botulism (CI. botulism)
(4) Malaria Parasite (Plasmodium falciparum)

10. The name of Henry Dunant is known for establishment of
(1) International Redcross
(2) United Nations development program
(3) Food and Agriculture organization
(4) United states agency for international development

11. All diseases are under surveillance by World Health Organization except
(1) Louse borne typhus fever
(2) Paralytic poliomyelitis
(3) Viral influenza
(4) Typhoid fever

12. Which of the following considered as biological disaster ?
(1) Earth quake
(2) Cyclone
(3) Epidemic of a disease
(4) Forest wild fire

13. Triage is known as
(1) First come first treat policy in a health centre.
(2) Prioritise treatment and transfer to health care facility.
(3) Search for critically ill and dead bodies.
(4) Keep all the affected persons irrespective of their condition, at a common, safe shelter home.

14. Following is not a fundamental aspect of disaster management.
(1) Disaster response
(2) Disaster preparedness
(3) Disaster remembrance
(4) Disaster mitigation

15. Man-made disaster in India (1984), where toxicity occurred due to
(1) Leakage of methyl isocynate gas from a factory.
(2) Leakage of virus from laboratory.
(3) Leakage of acidic liquid from a plant.
(4) Leakage of Radioactive material from a factory.

16. He wrote on air and water, considered as first epidemiologist and father of medicine :
(1) Joseph Lister
(2) Hippocrates
(3) Edward Jenner
(4) Winslow C.E.A.

17. Who gave concept of social pathology ?
(1) A. Churchil
(2) Alfred Grotjahn
(3) C. Wilfred
(4) McKeown

18. Which of the three indicators reflects Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI) ?
(1) Healthy Life, Longevity, GNI per capita
(2) Life expectancy, Mean years of schooling, Purchasing Power
(3) Infant Mortality, Life expectancy ai age five, Knowledge
(4) Infant Mortality, Life expectancy at age one, Literacy

19. Which of the followings is true for Health Index ?
(1) High and low risk states, Literacy and health information.
(2) High and low income group, Health insurance and social security.
(3) Health outcome, governance and information key input and processes.
(4) Disease outcome, management, input-output analysis.

20. Model of Epidemiological triad is known as
(1) Agent, Host and Environmental Factors.
(2) Interaction between agent, Host and Environmental Factors.
(3) Superimposition of environmental factors on Host Factors.
(4) Superimposition of environmental Factors on Agent Factors.

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21. Primordial prevention is defined as
(1) All the risk factors are under the control of human host, although appeared in population.
(2) After exposure, all the risk factors are eliminated from the community.
(3) Prevention of exposure of risk factors only in adult population at risk.
(4) Prevention of emergence of risk factors in population in which they have not yet appeared.

22. Who gave theory of web of causation ?
(1) Petten Kofer
(2) John Snow
(3) Louis Pasteur
(4) McMohan and Pugh

23. Causative agent is present in the environment but there is no transmission of disease, is known as
(1) Elimination
(2) Control
(3) Eradication
(4) Epidemic

24. Following Health related problems showing Iceberg phenomenon except
(1) Anaemia
(2) Hypertension
(3) Accidents
(4) Mental illness

25. School Health check-up is which level of prevention ?
(1) Primary
(2) Secondary
(3) Tertiary
(4) Primordial

26. Following are features of point source epidemic, except one :
(1) All the cases are develop in one incubation period.
(2) Epidemic curve rise and fall rapidly.
(3) There is always a secondary wave in the epidemic curve.
(4) Clustering of cases with in a time interval.

27. All the studies are examples of Cohort study, except one :
(1) Framingham Heart study.
(2) Study on thalidomide strategy.
(3) Study on oral contraceptives and Health.
(4) Smoking and Lung cancer.

28. Randomized controlled trail is a type of study :
(1) Intervention study
(2) Descriptive study
(3) Case-control study
(4) Interactive study

29. Which type of Biological transmission of Malaria parasite occurs in mosquito ?
(1) Cyclopropagative
(2) Propagative
(3) Cyclodevelopmental
(4) Budding

30. Recommended temperature to be maintained for vaccines during immunization — session is
(1) upto—12°C
(2) upto + 12°C
(3) —2°Cto—8°C
(4) +2°C to +8 °C

31. Read the question and select suitable answer :
“Open vial policy for a multi dose vial of a vaccine is not applicable for following vaccine-vials”.
(a) Measles
(b) Hepatitis — B
(c) D.P.T.
(d) Tetanus Toxoid
(e) BCG
(f) Rotavirus vaccine
(g) Inj IPV
(1) (b), (d), (g)
(2) (a), (e), (f)
(3) (b), (c), (d)
(4) (g), (d), (b)

32. Chlorination of water is a type of disinfection
(1) Precurrent
(2) Terminal
(3) Concurrent
(4) Post-current

33. Which one of the following statements is true for Quarantine ?
(1) Limitation of movement of sick person exposed to a communicable disease, till recovery takes place.
(2) Limitation of movement of sick person exposed to a communicable disease for a period of longest incubation period of disease.
(3) Limitation of freedom of well person whether exposed or not exposed to a disease for a longest incubation period of disease under consideration.
(4) Limitation of movement of well person exposed to a communicable disease for a period of longest incubation period of the disease.

34. Following one statement is not correct for Vaccine — Vial — Monitor —(- VVM):
(1) It is a temperature monitoring device with chemical indicator, recording heat — exposure.
(2) Location of VVM on vial indicates status of vial for open vial policy.
(3) Colour of VVM shows adjuvant used in vaccine and its reaction.
(4) VVM-7 means it will take seven days to change colour at discard point at 37 °C of exposure of vial.

35. Chronic carrier state present in all diseases except
(1) Rabies
(2) Hepatitis – B
(3) Diphtheria
(4) Gonorrhea

36. What is diagnostic power of a test ?
(1) Sensitivity
(2) Specificity
(3) Predictive value
(4) Population attributable risk

37. Which statement is correct for lead time ?
(1) Time of onset of symptoms of a disease and usual treatment.
(2) Time between’ diagnosis of disease by screening and diagnosis by other methods.
(3) Time between disease diagnosed and outcome of disease.
(4) Time between usual diagnosis & management of disease.

38. A screening test with high specificity will have following result :
(1) Few false positive cases
(2) Few false negative cases
(3) Median value of positive cases
(4) Median value of negative cases

39. Which type of population must be preferred to increase yield in a screening program of a disease ?
(1) High risk population
(2) General population
(3) Migrant population
(4) Population suffering from specific disease

40. Correct answer for rash in chicken-pox is
(1) Pustular
(2) Macular
(3) Maculopapular
(4) Pleomorphic

41. Koplik’s spot is a diagnostic feature of the disease
(1) Rubella
(2) Measles
(3) Chickenpox
(4) Mumps

42. In case of influenza virus, period of infectivity is
(1) 1—2 hours before and 1-2 hours after on set of symptoms.
(2) 5 days before and 5 days after on set of symptoms.
(3) 2 days after on set of symptoms.
(4) 1-2 days before and one to two days after on set of symptoms.

43. Multi drug resistant tuberculosis is known to be when the disease is
(1) Resistant to all antibiotics including streptomycin — and supporting drugs.
(2) Resistant to injectable —anti tuberculosis drugs.
(3) Resistant to isoniazid and rifampicin with or without other anti-tuberculosis drugs.
(4) Resistant to Fluoroquinolone.

44. In case of Hepatitis — B infection, HBs Antigen and HBs antigen are positive in case of following conditions :
(1) Acute infection
(2) Chronic infection
(3) Recovery phase
(4) After vaccination

45. In case of third degree rabid-dog bite, the recommended dose of rabies human immunoglobulin is
(1) 20IU/ Kg. body weight
(2) 40IU/ Kg. body weight
(3) 0.05 IU / Kg. body weight / day
(4) 0.20 IU /Kg, body weight

46. 17D live attenuated vaccine is for prevention of which of the following disease ?
(1) Rubella
(2) Rota virus diarrhoea
(3) Yellow fever
(4) Diphtheria

47. Causative agent for scrub typhus is
(1) Rickettsia mooseri
(2) Rickettsia tsutsugamushi
(3) Rickettsia conorii
(4) Coxiella burnetii

48. Following is not a virus causing sexually transmitted disease :
(1) Haemophilus ducreyi
(2) Molluscum contagiosum
(3) Herpes simplex
(4) Hepatitis -B

49. Which is false for Dengue fever ?
(1) Breakbone fever is characteristic.
(2) Torniquet test is positive.
(3) Serotype four is most dangerous than other serotype.
(4) Aedes aegypti is main vector to spread the disease.

50. Safe blood alcohol concentration considered to reduce alcohol related crash is
(1) 0.50 gm/dl or less
(2) 0.50 gm/dl or more
(3) 0.05 gm/dl or more
(4) 0.05 gm/di or less

51. World Health Organization launched a program “Vision 2020 : Right to Sight” came into force on
(1) 18 February 2019
(2) 18 February 1999
(3) 18 February 2020
(4) 18 February 2005

52. Body Mass Index (BMI) is a ratio of body weight (Kilogram) to which one of the following ?
(1) Square of height in meters
(2) Height in meters
(3) Square root of height
(4) Square of height in centimeters

53. For early detection of cancer cervix, most suitable screening test is
(1) Pap smear test
(2) VDRL test
(3) Ultra sound examination
(4) Mass X-ray examination

54. Which of the following statements is false for Hypertension ?
(1) “Rule of halves” is applicable.
(2) Central obesity is a risk associated with Hypertension.
(3) No role of genetic factor.
(4) Hypertension is associated with risk of stroke and coronary events.

55. Morbidity due to infection, Nutrition and other MCH (Maternal & child health) causes with increase in prevalence of non-communicable diseases is known as
(1) Health Transition and transformation of community.
(2) Maternal & child health transition.
(3) Epidemiological transition.
(4) Transition of determinants of Health.

56. Anti-Malaria month is celebrated in the month of every year
(1) January
(2) June
(3) July
(4) August

57. As per annual parasite incidence (API) in India, High risk area for malaria considered when
(1) API 1 or more
(2) API 2 or more
(3) API 3 or more
(4) API 4 or more