Facilities Management Interview Questions

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Facilities Management Interview Questions

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Questions on Facilities Management

1. Sensitivity analysis is the technique used for:
(A) Judging the attitude of people
(B) Estimating total variation in a factor if one or more variables are changed
(C) Graphically monitor a trend
(D) Accuracy of a process of production

2. Work measurement techniques are used for:
(A) Determining work content in a job
(B) Deciding efficiency of operation
(C) Calculating cost of production
(D) Deciding shop layout

3. Which is the most inaccurate method of forecasting?
(A) Delphi method
(B) Market research
(C) Exponential smoothing
(D) Time series

4. Most important characteristic of a good layout of facility is:
(A) Visually attractive
(B) Smooth flow of work
(C) Spaciousness
(D) Good ventilation

5. Which of the following is the correct sequence of information system evolution?

6. Which of the following distribution can be used as an approximation to Binomial probability distribution under certain conditions:
(A) Normal Distribution
(B) Exponential Distribution
(C) Chi-square Distribution
(D) t-Distribution

7. By using ogives we can graphically find:
(A) Mean
(B) Mode
(C) Median
(D) Standard Deviation

8. Factor analysis is used for:
(A) Data reduction
(B) Data expansion
(C) Data generalisation
(D) Data specification

9. Which one is a parametric test?
(A) Chi-square test
(B) Mann-Whitney test
(C) t-test
(D) Sign test

10. Rivalry among the competing firms in an industry will not increase when:
(A) Industry growth rate is slow
(B) Product differences are low
(C) Exit barriers are high
(D) Switching costs are low

11. According to Ansoff, firms operate on the two dimensions of:
(A) New Products and New Function
(B) Vision and Mission
(C) Backward and Forward Integration
(D) Vertical and Horizontal Integration

12. When the products tend to become more like commodities and the industry is dominated by a few large firms, each of which struggles to differentiate its products from the competitors’, it is considered to be:
(A) Fragmented Industry
(B) Segmented Industry
(C) Consolidated Industry
(D) Evolving Industry

13. The ‘Generic Competitive Strategies’ for outperforming other corporates in a particular industry has been proposed by:
(A) Ansoff
(B) C.K. Prahlad
(C) David McLelland
(D) Michael Porter

14. Which of the following is the highest decision-making authority in the WTO?
(A) General Council
(B) Ministerial Conference
(C) DG Secretariat
(D) The Council (Trade in Goods, Trade in Services and IPRs)

15. ……………………………. is a critical attribute of an entrepreneur.
(A) Management Skills
(B) Awareness of Environment
(C) Confidence
(D) Risk-bearing Ability

16. The two broad business categories of small and medium enterprises are:
(A) Manufacturing and Service
(B) Manufacturing and Processing
(C) Manufacturing and Marketing
(D) Processing and Consulting

17. Which of the following is not the cause of sickness of an enterprise?
(A) Lack of adequate capital
(B) Lack of demand for the products
(C) Lack of raw material
(D) Government Support and Concessions

18. According to Peter Drucker, which of the following is the basic tool for an entrepreneur?
(A) Searching for change
(B) Innovation
(C) Providing something of value
(D) Exploiting opportunities

19. …………………………. is the nodal agency set up by Government of India for the development of small scale sector.

20. The Kumar Mangalam Birla Committee was set up by:
(A) Government of India
(B) Reserve Bank of India
(C) Planning Commission

Retail Management Project Coordinator
Facilities Management Program Management
Financial Management Managers
Incident Management Product Management
Stakeholder Management Team Leader
Marketing Management Managerial Round
People Management Project Management
Operation Management Managers
Sales Management

21. The Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement is not applicable to:
(A) All Listed entities having paid up capital of Rs. 3 Crores and above
(B) Having Net worth of Rs. 25 Crores or more at any time
(C) All Listed entities having paid up capital of Rs. 5 Crores and above and having Net worth of over Rs. 50 Crores
(D) All Listed entities having paid up capital of Rs. 3 Crores and Net worth of Rs. 25 Crores or more any time

22. Abiding by Laws of the land and paying due taxes is part of CSR towards:
(A) Creditors
(B) Government
(C) Employees
(D) Consumers

23. The view that management’s only social responsibility is to maximise profits is referred in:
(A) The classical view
(B) The socioeconomic view
(C) The chapters view
(D) The prudent view

24. A formal statement of an organisation’s primary values and the ethical rules it expects its employees to follow is called as:
(A) Code of values
(B) Code of ethics
(C) Code of clarity
(D) Code of basics

25. The most appropriate measure of a country’s economic growth is its:
(D) Per capita real income

26. If the demand for a commodity is ……………………., the entire burden of Indirect Tax will fall on the consumer.
(A) Relatively inelastic
(B) Perfectly inelastic
(C) Perfectly elastic
(D) Relatively elastic

27. Which of the following economists is credited with developing Modern Monetary Economics?
(A) Adam Smith
(B) J.B. Say
(C) Milton Friedman
(D) Marshall

28. Through which of the following policies, do authorities maintain control over the supply of money for the realization of general economic objectives?
(A) Fiscal Policy
(B) Exim Policy
(C) Trade Policy
(D) Monetary Policy

29. Capital gains tax is the example of:
(A) Proportional Tax
(B) Indirect Tax
(C) Regressive Tax
(D) Direct Tax

30. “Assistant Manager, after observing the style of conducting a meeting of Senior Manager on number of occasions started conducting the meeting in similar manner” is an example of:
(A) Classical conditioning
(B) Social learning
(C) Insight learning
(D) Operant conditioning

31. Organizational commitment is an example of:
(A) Job satisfaction
(B) Work attitude
(C) Personality
(D) Perception

32. Group dynamics is the systematic study of:
(A) the forces operating outside the organisation
(B) the forces operating within the group
(C) the forces operating between management and union
(D) the forces operating between suppliers and customer

33. Participative leadership:
(A) dictates the terms
(B) asks for and uses suggestions from subordinates
(C) gives free-hand to the subordinates
(D) supports subordinates

34. Conflict is a:
(A) Natural disagreement arising between two people
(B) Disliking for each other
(C) Lack of understanding of one party
(D) Lack of understanding of the problem

35. Human Resource Management is primarily concerned with:
(A) Sales
(B) Dimension of People
(C) External Environment
(D) Internal Environment

36. Human Resource Planning is the process of:
(A) Managing people at work
(B) Stimulating people to work effectively
(C) Getting maximum out of employee
(D) Demand and supply forecasting of manpower

37. By-product of Job Analysis are:
(A) Job Enrichment and Job Evaluation
(B) Job Description and Job Specification
(C) Job Rotation and Job Transfer
(D) Job Satisfaction and Job Specification

38. The training analysis is required to:
(A) Find out the training needs
(B) Find out additional requirement of manpower
(C) Find out working problems
(D) Maintain industrial democracy at work

39. Management Development Programmes are required:
(A) to increase production
(B) to increase effectiveness and personality of a manager
(C) to increase morale
(D) to increase team work

40. Green shoe option refers to:
(A) Options issued by a company engaged in shoe business
(B) Options issued by company engaged in green marketing
(C) Option of allocating shares in excess of shares included in public issue
(D) Option of issuing debentures in place of equity

41. Which of the following statement is true?
(A) The degree of operating leverage is a measure of financial risk
(B) The degree of financial leverage is a measure of business risk
(C) The EBIT level at which the EPS is the same for two alternative financial plans is known as the financial breakeven point
(D) At financial break-even point, EPS is zero

42. While comparing risk involved in two capital budgeting projects with different initial outlays, the suitable measure is:
(A) Standard deviation
(B) Co-efficient of variation
(C) Co-efficient of correlation
(D) Beta

43. Which of the following statement is true?
(A) Retained earnings do not have explicit cost, they carry implicit cost
(B) Cost of debt is higher than cost of equity
(C) Beta is a measure of unsystematic risk
(D) The higher the corporate tax rate, the higher is the cost of debt

44. Which of the following assumption is not true in respect of Gordon’s Model?
(A) All investments are financed by either equity or retained earnings
(B) The firm has perpetual life
(C) Growth rate [g = br] is constant
(D) br > ke

45. Which of the following is not true for vertical marketing system?
(A) Improves operating efficiency
(B) Each function is performed at the most advantageous position in the channel
(C) Stresses the independence of individual members
(D) Is a tightly co-ordinated distribution channel

46. Mr. X and Mr. Y both own woollen sweaters and are currently shopping for two more sweaters. They both have earlier prices in mind when shopping for new ones. These prices are termed as:
(A) Psychological prices
(B) Reference prices
(C) Price points
(D) Skimmed prices

47. Which of the following is not a generic strategy as given by Michael Porter?
(A) Overall cost leadership
(B) Focus
(C) Line Pruning
(D) Differentiation

48. When we practice ……………………., we arrange for a product to occupy a clear, distinctive and desirable place relative to competing products in the minds of target consumers.
(A) Positioning
(B) Target segmenting
(C) Re-positioning
(D) Product distribution

49. An organization with a …………………… orientation assumes that the customers will resist purchasing products not deemed essential.
(A) Production concept
(B) Marketing concept
(C) Societal concept
(D) Sales concept

50. Infeasibility in graphical solution to Linear Programming Problem is caused by:
(A) Wrong objective function
(B) Conflicting constraints
(C) Absence of alternatives
(D) Absence of non-negativity constraints