Medical Surgical Nursing Questions and Answers
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Model Questions and Answers on Medical Surgical Nursing
1. Among the following, which one is considered as “Intentional Tort”?
(a) Malpractice
(b) Negligence
(c) Battery
(d) Failure to obtain consent
2. A professional nurse who failed to meet the standards of care that resulted in harm to the patient. The nurse will be charged of ______
(a) Battery
(b) Malpractice
(c) Negligence
(d) Felony
3. “Informed Consent” is obtained from the client who undergoes a Cardiac Surgery. This aspect of nursing care deals with__
(a) Legal Issue
(b) Ethical Issue
(c) Medico-ethical
(d) Medico-legal
4. Among the following, which one of the course recently introduced by INC?
(a) Nurse Practitioner Midwifery
(b) Nurse Practitioner Forensic Nurse
(c) Nurse Specialist Intensive Care
(d) Nurse Practitioner Critical Care
5. The activities involved in withdrawing life saving measures to the client in vegetative state is an characteristic example of ____
(a) Passive Euthanasia
(b) Active Euthanasia
(c) Ethical Dilemma
(d) Violation of Human Rights
6. “Tactile Freumitus” is the examination method performed in _____
(a) Hand
(b) Foot
(c) Chest
(d) Abdomen
7. The chest abnormality “Funnel chest” that look like “Sunken “is called as
(a) Pectus excavatum
(b) Pectus carinatum
(c) Pigeon Chest
(d) Pectus Kyposis
8. Pulsus paradoxus is a characteristic sign of _____
(a) Cardiac failure
(b) Cardiogenic shock
(c) Cardiac Tamponade
(d) Cor pulmonale
9. Digital Rectal Examination is performed in men primary to assess ____
(a) Rectum
(b) Anus
(c) Hemorrhoid
(d) Prostrate
10. The primary test is performed to confirm the presence of CSF in Ear discharge is ______
(a) Culture and Sensitivity
(b) Protein test
(c) Glucose test
(d) Elissa
11. Kussumel’s respiration is the characteristic manifestation of _____
(a) Respiratory Acidosis
(b) Metabolic Alkalosis
(c) Hepatic encephalopathy
(d) Diabetic Ketoacidosis
12. The Hb1 Ac ( Glycoslaed Hb) test estimates ____
(a) 90 days average Sugar level
(b) 90 day average Hb level
(c) 60 days average RBC level
(d) 60 days average Vit c Level
13. Before performing the Thoracentesis, ___________ assessment is important.
(a) Ausculating lung sounds for crepitus
(b) Palpating Intercostal spaces for abnormality
(c) Percussion of Intercostal spaces
(d) Inspecting Respiratory pattern
14. The presence of hemoperitonium and discoloration of abdomen indicates _____
(a) Acute Appendicitis
(b) Acute Pancreatitis
(c) Peritonitis
(d) Acute abdomen
15. A flat, non palpable, colored lesion which is less than 2 cm diameter is known as __
(a) Plaque
(b) Papule
(c) Comedo
(d) Macule
16. The client is suffering from Anterio septal MI, the abnormal ECG changes are expected in _____leads
(a) V1-V4
(b) I,II,V5-V6
(c) aVF, III
(d) aVR,V4-V6
17. In ECG, PR segment represents __________
(a) Atrial Repolarization
(b) Atrial Depolarization
(c) Time taken for impulse to travel from Atria to Purkinje Fibres
(d) Time taken for impulse to travel from SA node to AV node
18. Holtar Monitoring is related to _____
(a) Hemodyanamic Monitoring
(b) CVP Monitoring
(c) ICP Monitoring
(d) ECG Monitoring
19. The color of the Lead that applied in Left Chest while recording Continuous ECG that represents Left Arm is ______
(a) Yellow
(b) Black
(c) Red
(d) Green
20. ___________test is contra indicated for client who had undergone ORIF for compound fracture
(a) Contrast CT
(b) Contrast MRI
(c) Contrast coronary Angiography
(d) CT guided Bone Biopsy
21. Among the following, which patient should be given top priority to provide Nursing care?
(a) 70 year stroke patient who is risk of injury
(b) 35 year old women who undergone mastectomy who complaints of Body image
(c) 50 year old man suffering from Urinary retention
(d) 10 year old boy suffering form diarrhea
22. The care of terminally ill client at an “Institution” by specialized professionals to meet the needs of End of Life care is Known as ________
(a) Hospice care
(b) Ambulatory care
(c) Palliative care
(d) Institutional care
23. Among the following, what are the cranial nerves that tested together?
(a) I, II and III
(b) III, IV and VI
(c) VIII, IX and XII
(d) V, VI and VIII
24. The Mini Mental Status Examination (MMSE) is performed primarily to assess_____
(a) Cognitive impairment
(b) Thought impairment
(c) Perceptual Impairment
(d) Emotional Impairment
25. Among the following, which one is the type of Contact Tonometer uses application of weight to flatten cornea?
(a) Goldman
(b) Schiotz
(c) Perkins
(d) Burkins
26. Among the following, which type of hernia increases the risk of GERD or Relex Oesophagitis?
(a) Hiatus Hernia
(b) Umbilical Hernia
(c) Diaphragmatic Hernia
(d) Incisional Hernia
27. Dumping syndrome is a complication of _________
(a) Diaphragmatic Hernia
(b) Appendectomy
(c) Pancreatectomy
(d) Gastrectomy
28. Pernious anaemia is a clinical features of __________
(a) Stomach Cancer
(b) Acute Gastritis
(c) Cholecystitis
(d) Pancreatitic Cancer
29. What is the important Nursing measure to be performed for a client who receives feeding through intestinal tube (Cantor tube)?
(a) Advance the tube by facilitating gravity and peristalsis at specified interval
(b) Avoid frequent oral care
(c) Irrigate the tube with 0.9% NS before each feed
(d) Provide Ice chips or water to advance the tube
30. The best measure to reduce scrotal swelling and pain followed by herniorraphy surgery is
(a) Elevate the scrotum and place ice intermittently
(b) Apply snug binder in abdomen
(c) Avoid weight lifting and strenuous exercise
(d) Place a pillow between legs
31. What is the priority assessment before giving feeding through Gastrostomy tube for a client who undergone partial esophageal resection?
(a) Check the position of the tube by aspiration
(b) Check the patency of the tube
(c) Checking the Bowel sounds
(d) Checking the type of feed
32. Fistula is a complication commonly associated with______
(a) Hemorrhoids
(b) Appendicitis
(c) Chronic Diarrhea
(d) Crohn’s Disease
33. The visible peristaltic movements is a characteristic sign of_____
(a) Intussusception
(b) Umbilical Hernia
(c) Ulcerative colitis
(d) Irritable Bowel Syndrome
34. The ACID BASE imbalance that expected in a client who has continuous Ryle’s tube Lavage is
(a) Keto acidosis
(b) Metabolic Acidosis
(c) Metabolic Alkalosis
(d) Keto alkalosis
35. Among the following, which one factor predisposes the client to intestinal perforation?
(a) Highly irritable diet
(b) Typhoid fever
(c) Intestinal parasites
(d) Strangulated hernia
36. Among the following ostomies, which one type has highest risk of bile leakage surrounding the stoma that predisposes Skin excoriation?
(a) Ileostomy
(b) Ascending colostomy
(c) Tranverse colostomy
(d) Desending colostomy
37. Acute complication of Appendectomy is ___________
(a) Small Bowel obstruction
(b) Diveriticulosis
(c) Intestinal spasms
(d) Paralytic ileus
38. Among the following , which one is the priority intervention for a client with Peritonitis?
(a) Gastric aspiration
(b) Fluid balance
(c) Pain management
(d) Gastric gavage
39. The commonest cause of ankle edema in liver failure patient is_____
(a) Hypoalbuminemea
(b) Hyperlipidemea
(c) Massive Proteinuria
(d) Elevated ammonia
40. Oesophageal varices is a complication associated with______
(a) Hepatitis
(b) Systemic Hypertention
(c) Oesophgeal Hernia
(d) Portal Hypertension
41. Biot’s Respiration is a characteristic manifestation of _______
(a) CSF leakage
(b) Dysfunction of Hypothalamus
(c) Increases ICP
(d) Increased MAP
42. Kernig’s sign and Brudzinski sign are elicited due to __________
(a) Menigeal tear
(b) Meningeal irritation
(c) Meningeal edema
(d) Meningeal fistula
43. Halo’s sign is characteristic sign that reveal_____
(a) Presence of blood in CSF
(b) Presence of CSF in Blood
(c) Presence of CSF in dressing material
(d) Presence of blood in dressing material
44. Among the following, which position has to be avoided for client suffering from increased Intra Cranial Pressure?
(a) Head Midline
(b) Head turned to one side
(c) Neck in neutral position
(d) Head of bed elevated to 30 degrees
45. Among the following, which intervention is most appropriate to decrease Increased Intra Cranial Pressure?
(a) Maintaining Hyperthermia
(b) Maintaining fluid balance
(c) Hyperventilation
(d) Helminch maneuver
46. The clinical feature of spinal shock followed by spinal cord injury is _____________
(a) Hyperreflexia
(b) Positive reflexes
(c) Reflex emptying of the bladder
(d) Inability to elicit a Babinski’s reflex
47. The Nurse places the personal items of the hemiplegic patient at affected side as part of rehabilitation. This action is suggestive of ________problem identified by Nurse while performing assessment.
(a) Unilateral neglect
(b) Impaired Physical Mobility
(c) Activity Intolerance
(d) Hemiparesis
48. Mr.X is admitted in Emergency Unit with the complaints of severe muscle weakness requires intubation. The history of the client reveals he is taking neostigmine for last 30 days. The type of crisis the client experiences is____
(a) Adrenergic crisis
(b) Parkinson’s crisis
(c) Myasthenia crisis
(d) Hypertensive crisis
49. The client is applied of cervical tongs for cervical injury in emergency department. What action that nurse should avoid while caring a client?
(a) Use of Rotorest bed
(b) Removing weights to reposition the client
(c) Assessing the weights for integrity
(d) Compare the ordered traction with amount in use
50. What instruction is most appropriate in patient with trigeminal neuralgia to prevent triggering the pain?
(a) Drink iced foods
(b) Avoid oral hygiene
(c) Apply warm compresses
(d) Chew on the unaffected side
