Microbiology Questions and Answers

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Microbiology Questions and Answers

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Questions and Answers on Microbiology

1. Staphylococcus aureus enterotoxin, all are true, except :
(1) Preformed toxin
(2) Incubation period is short (1-6 hours)
(3) The toxin stimulates the vagus nerve and the vomiting centre of the brain.
(4) Treatment is mainly by early institution of antibiotics.

2. Positive tube coagulase test is a property of all the following species of staphylococcus, except :
(1) S. aureus
(2) S. hyicus
(3) S. Intermedius
(4) S. Lugdunensis

3. Staphylococcus epidermidisa, all are true, except :
(1) Accounts for 75% of CONS
(2) Phosphatase negative
(3) Produces biofilon
(4) causes stitch abscesses

4. S. pyogenes is differentiated from S. agalactial by all, except :
(1) C. carbohydrate antigen
(2) M. protein
(3) Bactracin susceptibility
(4) CAMP test

5. All are true about streptolysin 0, except :
(1) Causes hemolysis on the surface of blood agar plate.
(2) Strongly antigenic
(3) Useful for retrospective diagnosis of streptococcal infection
(4) Not useful for diagnosis of post streptococcal glomerulonephritis.

6. In revised Jones criteria for acute rheumatic fever, the major manifestations include all, except :
(1) Subcutaneous nodules
(2) Pancorditis
(3) Arthritis (migrating polyarthritis)
(4) Increased ASO antibodies

7. Which is not a property of S.pneumonia ?
(1) Bile solubility
(2) Animal pathogenicity in mice
(3) Growth in presence of 40% bile
(4) Optochin sensitivity

8. All the following are causative agent of NGU, except :
(1) Chlamydia trachomatis
(2) Mycoplasma hominis
(3) Candida albicans
(4) Meningococci

9. Serogrouping of meningococcus is based on a
(1) Outer membrane protein
(2) Endotoxin
(3) Capsular polysaccharide
(4) Transferrin binding protein

10. Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome, all are true, except :
(1) Caused by meningococcus
(2) Bilateral adrenal haemorrhage is seen
(3) Purpura fulminans is a feature
(4) Pathogenesis is due to capsule

11. Transport media used for gonococci is :
(1) Stuart’s medium
(2) Pike’s medium
(3) VR medium
(4) Cary blair medium

12. Metachromatic granules of corynebacterium diptheriae can be stained by all of the following special stains, except :
(1) Neisser’s stain
(2) Ziehl-Neelsen stain
(3) Albert’s stain
(4) Ponder’s stain

13. Gram-stain morphology of bacillus anthracis is :
(1) Jennis racket appearance
(2) Drum stick appearance
(3) Bamboo stick appearance
(4) Spectacle glass appearance

14. Emetic toxin of B.cereus – all are true, except :
(1) Produces food poisoning similar to S.aureus.
(2) Chinese fried rice is a common source.
(3) Serotype associated 2, 6, 8.
(4) Incubation period 1-5 hours.

15. Site of action of tetanus toxin
(1) Presynaptic terminal of spinal cord
(2) Postsynaptic terminal of spinal cord
(3) Neuromuscular junction
(4) Muscle fibre

16. Pseudomembranous colitis is caused by
(1) Clostridium perfringens
(2) Clostridium difficile
(3) Clostridium tetani
(4) Clostridium botulinum

17. Fatty acid composition of anaerobic bacteria can be determined by which of following tests ?
(1) Phage typing
(2) Biotyping
(3) Gas-liquid chromatography
(4) Immunoassay

18. MPT 64 antigen is used to detect –
(1) M. tuberculosis from M. bovis
(2) M. tuberculosis complex from NTM
(3) Acid-fast bacilli from non acid-fast bacilli
(4) M. tuberculosis from M. leprae

19. Line probe assay for M. tuberculosis – all are true, except : :
(1) Used for identification of MTB complex
(2) Defects rifampicne resistance
(3) Detects isoniaziel resistance
(4) Useful for paucibacillary smear-negative specimens

20. Interferon Gamma Release Assay (IGRA) has the advantage over tuberculin test :
(1) Positive indicates active infection
(2) Has less false negative result
(3) Has no false positive result
(4) Can be used as marker of prevalence

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21. Which of the following types of leprosy is the most infectious ?
(1) Lepromatous leprosy
(2) Tuberculoid leprosy
(3) Borderline tuberculoid leprosy
(4) Mid-borderline leprosy

22. Which of the following can be used for cultivation of Mycobacterium leprae ?
(1) Brain heart infusion agar
(2) Chorioallantoic membrane of chick embryo
(3) Foodpad of mouse
(4) All of the above

23. Which of the following serotypes of chlamydia trachomatis cause lymphogranuloma venereum ?
(1) A,B, Ba, C
(2) D-K
(3) L1-L3
(4) Only A

24. Which of the following is the causative agent of donovanosis ?
(1) Klebseilla pneumoniae
(2) Leishmania donovani
(3) Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
(4) Streptococcus mutans

25. Which of the following tests is performed to demonstrate congenital syphilis ?
(1) FTA-ABS test
(2) IgM FTA-ABS test
(3) TPI test
(4) TPHA test

26. Which of the following is the causative agent of Rickettsial pox ?
(1) Ricketisia prowazekii
(2) R.typhi
(3) R.akali
(4) R.conori

27. Vibrio parahaemolyticus strains isolated from environmental sources can be differentiated from those isolated from humans cases by :
(1) Kanagawa phenomenon
(2) modified CAMP test
(3) Reverse CAMP test
(4) All of the above

28. Which statement best describes toll like receptors ?
(1) Cell-associated receptors that enhances phagocytosis of pathogens
(2) Acute phase proteins which activate complement system
(3) Receptors which activate large number of T helper cells
(4) Receptors for polyclonal activation

29. Exotoxins do not have which of the following characteristics ?
(1) They are produced extracellularly
(2) They are produced by both gram positive and gram-negative bacteria
(3) Cannot be converted into toxoids
(4) They are heat-labile

30. Super antigen causes :
(1) Enhancement of phagocytosis
(2) Polyclonal activation of B-cells
(3) Antigen presentation by macrophage
(4) Activation of complement

31. Which antibody mediates ADCC (Antibody Dependent Cell Mediated Cytotoxicity) ?
(1) IgA
(2) IgG
(3) IgE
(4) IgM

32. The technique used for monoclonal antibodies production is called :
(1) Hybridoma
(2) Rosette formation
(3) Opsonisation
(4) Immunofluorescence

33. Elek’s test is an example of :
(1) Agglutination
(2) Neutralisation test
(3) Precipitation test
(4) Complementation fixation test

34. Indirect immunofluorescence test may be used for detection of :
(1) Rabies virus antigen
(2) Antibodies in syphilis
(3) Both of the above
(4) None of the above

35. Monoclonal antibodies recognize a single :
(1) Antigen
(2) Epitope
(3) Paratope
(4) None of these

36. The chromogen most commonly used to label antibodies in ELISA is :
(1) Malachite green
(2) Alkaline phosphatase
(3) Congo red
(4) Superdismutase

37. High titres of antinuclear antibodies are indicative of :
(1) Parasitic infections
(2) Fungal infections
(3) Autoimmune diseases
(4) Bacterial diseases

38. All the following statements about hybridoma technology are true except :
(1) Specific antibody producing cells are integrated with myeloma cells.
(2) Myeloma cells in salvage pathway grows well in HAT medium.
(3) Ammopterin, a folate antagonist, inhibits de novo pathway.
(4) HGPRT se and thymidylate synthetase are required for salvage pathway.

39. An agglutination reaction which makes use of staphylococcus aureus bound IgG as a reagent is known as:
(1) Passive agglutination
(2) Reverse passive agglutination
(3) Coagglutination
(4) Flocculation

40. Regarding the blotting techniques, which of the following is false ?
(1) Southern blot is used to detect DNA.
(2) Northern blot is used to detect RNA.
(3) Western blot is used to detect antigens.
(4) Eastern blot is used to analyse proteins for post-translational modifications.

41. Which of the following disease is NOT vaccine preventable ?
(1) Mumps
(2) Hepatitis B
(3) Hepatitis C
(4) Hepatitis A

42. CD8 cells can recognise :
(1) MHC class I antigens
(2) MHC class II antigens
(3) MHC class III antigens
(4) All of the above

43. Which of the following HLA types is associated with ankylosing spondylitis ?
(1) HLA-BZ7
(2) HLA-DR4
(3) HLA-DP
(4) None of the above

44. The animal used for monoclonal antibodies production is :
(1) Mouse
(2) Guinea pig
(3) Rabbit
(4) None of the above

45. The widely accepted theory of antibody formation is:
(1) Direct template theory
(2) Indirect template theory
(3) Natural selection theory
(4) Clonal selection theory