NCLEX Objective Questions and Answers

The candidates can download the NCLEX Objective Questions and Answers for Preparation. The NCLEX-RN Objective Papers will help the aspirants to crack the exam easily. Also, Visit our website for the NCLEX-RN for the Last 5 Years Papers Objective Papers. Refer the NCLEX Objective Questions and Answers to get an idea of the difficulty level of exam. The aspirants who are going to attend the NCLEX-PN Examination can use this syllabus and Objective Papers as a reference for the preparation.

Interested applicants can go through this page to download the Objective Questions of National Council Licensure Examination Exam. The NCLEX-PN Objective Papers are the most important aspects for the proper exam preparation. With the help of these NCLEX Objective Question Papers, you will get an idea about the test pattern, subjects, difficulty level, and weightage of each section. So, download the NCLEX-RN Objective Papers along with the answers. We are providing the National Council Licensure Examination Objective Question Papers of for free of cost. Use these Last 5 Years NCLEX-RN Exam Objective Question Papers as a reference for the exam preparation.

NCLEX Objective Questions and Answers

Objective Questions and Answers for NCLEX

1. A 66-year-old woman is being evaluated for pernicious anemia. Which assessment findings would be most apt to be present in a client with pernicious anemia?
A. Easy bruising
B. Pain in the legs
C. Fine red rash on the extremities
D. Pruritus

2. The nurse is assessing the client’s vital signs and notes that the client is breathing very noisily. The nurse describes this pattern of breathing as:
A. hyperpnea.
B. Cheyne-Stokes.
C. orthopnea.
D. stertorous.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). The major complication associated with systemic lupus erythematosis is:
A. Nephritis
B. Cardiomegaly
C. Desquamation
D. Meningitis

4. The nurse is teaching the client with polycythemia vera about prevention of complications of the disease. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
A. “I will drink 500mL of fluid or less each day.”
B. “I will wear support hose.”
C. “I will check my blood pressure regularly.”
D. “I will report ankle edema.”

5. Which of the following best describes the language of a 24-month-old?
A. Doesn’t understand yes and no
B. Understands the meaning of words
C. Able to verbalize needs
D. Asks “why?” to most statements

6. An adult is on long-term aspirin therapy and complains of tinnitus. Which interpretation by the nurse is accurate?
A. The aspirin is working as expected.
B. The client ingested more medication than was recommended.
C. The client has an upper GI bleed.
D. The client is experiencing a minor overdose.

7. During a child’s 18-month checkup, the mother remarks that her child is not doing any of the following. Which would cause most concern to the nurse?
A. Speaking in full sentences
B. Making eye contact
C. Riding a tricycle
D. Putting together a 24-piece jigsaw puzzle

8. A postoperative client has an abdominal incision. While getting out of bed, the client reports feeling a “pulling” sensation in his abdominal wound. The nurse assesses the client’s wound and finds that it has separated and the abdominal organs are protruding. Which nursing interventions are most appropriate at this time? Select all that apply.
A. Notify the client’s primary physician.
B. Cover the wound with saline-soaked sterile gauze.
C. Give the client a dose of antibiotics.
D. Order an abdominal binder from the supply department.
E. Push the organs back into the abdomen.
F. Assess the client for signs of shock.

9. A client with AIDS is admitted with a diagnosis of pneumocystis carinii pneumonia. Shortly after his admission, he becomes confused and disoriented. He attempts to pull out his IV and refuses to wear an 0, mask. Based upon his mental status, the priority nursing diagnosis is:
A. Social isolation
B. Risk for injury
C. Ineffective coping
D. Anxiety

10. The client with suspected meningitis is admitted to the unit. The doctor is performing an assessment to determine meningeal irritation and spinal nerve root inflammation. A positive Kernig’s sign is charted if the nurse notes:
A. Pain on flexion of the hip and knee
B. Nuchal rigidity on flexion of the neck
C. Pain when the head is turned to the left side
D. Dizziness when changing positions

11. An adult who has a hiatal hernia is seen in clinic. The nurse is reviewing her care with her. Which comment by the client indicates a need for more teaching about managing her condition?
A. “I sit up for an hour after eating.”
B. “I miss drinking soda, but I know it is not good for me.”
C. “I like to go swimming every day.”
D. “I drink hot chocolate instead of coffee.”

12. The nurse is caring for an adult who had a nephrectomy this morning. Because of the location of the surgery, the nurse knows that the client is at increased risk for which of the following?
A. Thrombophlebitis
B. Wound infection
C. Atelectasis
D. Footdrop

13. A nurse is caring for a client with a hiatal hernia. The client complains of abdominal and sternal pain after eating. The pain makes it difficult for the client to sleep. Which instructions should the nurse stress when teaching this client? Select all that apply.
A. Avoid constrictive clothing.
B. Lie down for 30 minutes after eating.
C. Decrease intake of caffeine and spicy foods.
D. Eat three meals per day.
E. Sleep in semi-Fowler position.
F. Maintain a normal body weight.

14. Antibiotics are ordered for an adult who has a peptic ulcer. The client asks why antibiotics are prescribed. What should the nurse include when responding?
A. Antibiotics are given to prevent secondary infections.
B. Peptic ulcers are usually caused by bacteria.
C. Antibiotics will create the environment necessary for the ulcers to heal.
D. Antibiotics are given to prevent the infection from spreading to the bowel.

15. The nurse is caring for a 70-year-old client with hypovolemia who is receiving a blood transfusion. Assessment findings reveal crackles on chest auscultation and distended neck veins. What is the nurse’s initial action?
A. Slow the transfusion
B. Document the finding as the only action
C. Stop the blood transfusion and turn on the normal saline
D. Assess the client’s pupils

16. The client is being evaluated for possible acute leukemia. Which inquiry by the nurse is most important?
A. “Have you noticed a change in sleeping habits recently?”
B. “Have you had a respiratory infection in the last 6 months?”
C. “Have you lost weight recently?”
D. “Have you noticed changes in your alertness?”

17. A 26-year-old client with chronic renal failure was recently told by his physician that he’s a poor candidate for a transplant because of chronic uncontrolled hypertension and diabetes mellitus. Now, the client tells the nurse, “I want to go off dialysis. I’d rather not live than be on this treatment for the rest of my life.” Which responses by the nurse are appropriate? Select all that apply.
A. Take a seat next to the client and sit quietly to reflect on what was said.
B. Say to the client, “We all have days when we don’t feel like going on.”
C. Leave the room to allow the client privacy to collect his thoughts.
D. Say to the client, “You’re feeling upset about the news you got about a transplant.”
E. Say to the client, “The treatments are only 3 days a week. You can live with that.”

18. A nurse is collecting data on a newly admitted client. When filling out the family assessment, who should the nurse consider to be a part of the client’s family? Select all that apply.
A. People related by blood or marriage
B. People whom the client views as family
C. People who live in the same house
D. People who the nurse thinks are important to the client
E. People who live in the same house with the same racial background as the client
F. People who provide for the physical and emotional needs of the client

19. The nurse is auscultating an elderly bedridden client’s breath sounds and hears crackles. What is the best interpretation of this finding?
A. This is normal for the client’s age.
B. This is suggestive of an immediately life threatening condition.
C. This is an indication that the client needs to take deep breaths.
D. This is an indication that the client may need nasal oxygen.

20. The nurse is obtaining a blood pressure on a client who weighs over 300 pounds. The nurse chooses to use a large cuff for which of the following reasons?
A. A large cuff is more comfortable for the client.
B. Using a cuff that is too small causes the blood pressure reading to be abnormally high.
C. When a regular cuff is used on a large person, it is difficult to hear the pulse.
D. A small cuff on a large person causes the systolic pressure to read lower than normal and the diastolic pressure to read higher than normal.

Practice Papers Sample Papers
Quiz Model Papers
Mock Test Genitourinary System
Typical Questions Gastrointestinal System
MCQs Neurosensory System
Objective Papers Respiratory System
Important Set Hematologic System
Previous Papers Cardiovascular System

21. A 5-year-old child has been treated for sickle cell crisis. The parent asks the nurse if there is anything that can be done to prevent future crises. What should be included in the nurse’s response?
A. Sickle crisis is hard to predict and not usually preventable.
B. Keeping the child from getting chilled may prevent a crisis.
C. Fevers, vomiting, and diarrhea should be reported to the physician immediately.
D. Giving the child aspirin on a daily basis lessens the frequency of crises.

22. A client with congestive heart failure has been receiving digoxia (Laxoxin). Which finding indicates that the medication is having a desired effect?
A. Increased urinary output
B. Stabilized weight
C. Improved appetite
D. Increased pedal edema

23. An adult is admitted with arteriosclerosis obliterans. Which finding would the nurse most expect to see in this client?
A. Legs are swollen.
B. Blood pressure is 110/72.
C. Hands are painful when exposed to cold.
D. Legs are cool to the touch.

24. The LPN on a medical unit observes a coworker taking diazepam ordered for a client. What should the nurse do initially?
A. Immediately call the supervisor
B. Confront the nurse
C. Observe the nurse for unsafe behavior
D. Administer that nurse’s medications for the rest of the shift

25. An adult is to receive a narcotic analgesic via patient-controlled analgesia (PCA). Which statement by the client indicates that the client understands how the PCA works?
A. “When I press this button, the machine will always give me more medicine.”
B. “I will press the button whenever I begin to experience pain.”
C. “I should press this button every hour so the pain doesn’t come back.”
D. “With this machine, I will experience no more pain.”

26. A client with chronic pain is being treated with opioid administration via epidural route. Which medication would it be most important to have available due to a possible complication of this pain relief procedure?
A. (Ketorolac) Toradol
B. (Naloxone) Narcan
C. (Diphenhydramine) Benadry
D. (Promethazine) Phenergan

27. A client who has chosen to breastfeed tells the nurse that her nipples became very sore while she was breastfeeding her older child. Which measure will help her to avoid soreness of the nipples?
A. Feeding the baby during the first 48 hours after delivery
B. Breaking suction by placing a finger between the baby’s mouth and the breast when she terminates the feeding
C. Applying hot, moist soaks to the breast several times per day
D. Wearing a support bra

28. A 32-year-old mother of three is brought to the clinic. Her pulse is 52, there is a weight gain of 30 pounds in 4 months, and the client is wearing two sweaters. The client is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following nursing diagnoses is of highest priority?
A. Impaired physical mobility related to decreased endurance
B. Hypothermia r/t decreased metabolic rate
C. Disturbed thought processes r/t interstitial edema
D. Decreased cardiac output r/t bradycardia

29. A student nurse is observing a neurological nurse perform an assessment. When the nurse asks the client to “stick out his tongue,” the nurse is assessing the function of which cranial nerve?
A. Optic
B. Olfactory
C. X vagus
D. XII hypoglossal

30. A sputum collection is ordered for an adult. How should the nurse plan to collect the specimen?
A. Have the client rinse her mouth with mouthwash before collecting the specimen
B. Collect the specimen in the morning
C. Have the client use the collection cup every time she coughs during the day
D. Encourage the client to drink lots of fluids before collecting the specimen

31. The family of a young man who has been declared brain dead following an accident tells the nurse that the doctors said their son would be a good organ donor. They ask the nurse if donating his organs would mean that they could not have a regular funeral. Which response by the nurse is most accurate?
A. “Donating organs does deface the body, so a closed casket is necessary.”
B. “Ask the physician which organs would be donated.”
C. “Organ donation involves a surgical incision but should not interfere with any type of funeral.”
D. “Donating organs is a wonderful service to humanity.”

32. The nurse is caring for a client who had a colostomy two days ago. Which comment the client makes indicates a readiness to learn about caring for the colostomy?
A. “How long will I have to have this thing on my body?”
B. “What is that bag for?”
C. “Did the doctor really do a colostomy?”
D. “Why did this have to happen to me?”

33. Digoxin has been prescribed for a 70-year-old man who has atrial fibrillation. Which behavior indicates that the client understands the nurse’s instructions about taking digoxin?
A. The client states that he will not spend much time in the sun.
B. The client says to the nurse, “Is this the correct way to check my pulse? I want to do it right.”
C. The client tells the nurse he will be very careful to sit on the edge of the bed for a few moments before standing up.
D. The client says, “I will not take Cialis while I am taking this medicine.”

34. A client on the psychiatric unit is in an uncontrolled rage and is threatening other clients and staff. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?
A. Call security for assistance and prepare to sedate the client.
B. Tell the client to calm down and ask him if he would like to play cards.
C. Tell the client that if he continues his behavior he will be punished.
D. Leave the client alone until he calms down.

35. A client is being monitored using a central venous pressure monitor. If the pressure is 2cm of water, the nurse should:
A. Call the doctor immediately
B. Slow the intravenous infusion
C. Listen to the lungs for rales
D. Administer a diuretic

36. An adult is admitted with advanced cancer of the GI tract. What question must be included in the admission assessment?
A. “What foods do you like best?”
B. “Do you have advance directives?”
C. “Do you want CPR if you go into cardiac arrest?”
D. “Do you understand the serious nature of your illness?”

37. While reading the progress notes on a client with cancer, the nurse notes a TNM classification of T1, N1, MO. What does this classification indicate?
A. The tumor is in situ, no regional lymph nodes, and no metastasis.
B. No evidence of primary tumor exists, lymph nodes can’t be assessed, and metastasis can’t be assessed.
C. The tumor is extended, with regional lymph node involvement and distant metastasis.
D. The tumor is extended and regional lymph nodes are involved, but there is no metastasis.

38. A client scheduled for disc surgery tells the nurse that she frequently uses the herbal supplement kava-kava (piper methysticum). The nurse Should notify the doctor because kava-kava:
A. Increases the effects of anesthesia and post-operative analgesia
B. Eliminates the need for antimicrobial therapy following Surgery
C. Increases urinary output, so a urinary catheter will be needed post-operatively
D. Depresses the immune system, so infection is more of a problem

39. Which diet is associated with an increased risk of colorectal cancer?
A. Low protein, complex carbohydrates
B. High protein, simple carbohydrates
C. High fat, refined carbohydrates
D. Low carbohydrates, complex proteins

40. A 15-year-old client has just been diagnosed as having infectious mononucleosis. He asks how he contracted the disease. Which action reported in his history is most likely related to developing infectious mononucleosis?
A. The client says he frequently trades hats with his friends.
B. The client stepped on a nail last week.
C. The client ate raw shellfish two weeks ago.
D. The client often drinks from his friends’ water bottles.

41. The nurse is teaching a client with Parkinson’s disease ways to prevent curvatures of the spine associated with the disease. To prevent spinal flexion, the nurse should tell the client to:
A. Periodically lie prone without a neck pillow
B. Sleep only in dorsal recumbent position
C. Rest in supine position with his head elevated
D. Sleep on either side, but keep his back straight

42. An adult is receiving nasal oxygen at 6 L/min. The client asks the nurse why the oxygen is humidified. What should the nurse include when responding to the client?
A. Humidifying oxygen helps to prevent fire.
B. Humidity increases the concentration of oxygen.
C. Humidity helps to keep the nasal passages from drying out.
D. Humidity reduces the growth of organisms in the tubing.

43. The nurse is caring for a client who was in a motor vehicle accident. His blood pressure is dropping rapidly. What should the nurse observe the client for before placing the client in shock position?
A. Long bone fractures
B. Air embolus
C. Head injury
D. Thrombophlebitis

44. The parents of a school-age child who has sickle cell anemia are discussing recreational activities for their child. Which comment indicates that the parents understand the child’s needs?
A. “Soccer will increase our child’s stamina and is good for him.”
B. “We should encourage our child to engage in as many outdoor sports as he likes.”
C. “Track is a good sport because he is less likely to fall and be injured than in a sport such as football.”
D. “Whatever sport he selects, he should have frequent water breaks.”

45. An adult woman has been diagnosed with varicose veins. Which aspect of her history is most likely related to her diagnosis?
A. She has had five term pregnancies.
B. She runs several marathons a year.
C. She is 5 feet, 6 inches tall and weighs 120 pounds.
D. She works entering data into a computer.”

46. An adult has had a gastrectomy. Because the client has had a gastrectomy, teaching should include which of the following?
A. Eat a diet low in protein and high in simple carbohydrates.
B. Limit sodium and simple carbohydrates in the diet.
C. Drink fluids with meals.
D. Sit up after eating.

47. A client hospitalized with cirrhosis has developed abdominal ascites. The nurse should provide the client with snacks that provide additional:
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Protein
D. Fat

48. The nurse is preparing a client with an axillo-popliteal bypass graft for discharge. The client should be taught to avoid:
A. Using a recliner to rest
B. Resting in supine position
C. Sitting in a straight chair
D. Sleeping in right Sim’s position

49. The nurse is planning care for all of the following clients. Which client should be cared for first?
A. A 60-year-old who is three days postop and needs a dressing change and ambulation
B. A 75-year-old who had a suprapubic prostatectomy yesterday and says, “Take that tube out of me, I have to pee.”
C. A 90-year-old who had a total hip replacement two days ago and is to get out of bed today
D. A 50-year-old who had an abdominal cholecystectomy yesterday and is asking for pain medication

50. “The nurse is caring for an adult who is enrolled in a study involving an experimental drug. The client says to the nurse, “I don’t think I can stand the vomiting anymore. I think it is due to the drug I am taking. If only I could get out of this study I signed up for. That was a really stupid thing I did when I signed up for the study.” What information must the nurse include when responding to the client?
A. If the client signed the proper forms, the client is committed to the study.
B. Persons who have signed up for a study may opt out of the study at any time.
C. The person should discuss his/her concerns with the researchers.
D. Inform the client that there are drugs that can control nausea.

Is NCLEX accepted in UK?

The National Council Licensure Examination (NCLEX) is a standardized exam that all nurses in the United States and Canada must pass to become licensed nurses. The NCLEX exam is designed to test a candidate’s knowledge and understanding of nursing concepts and practices.

If you are a nurse who has passed the NCLEX exam and is considering working in the United Kingdom (UK), you may be wondering whether the NCLEX is accepted in the UK. In this article, we will explore the acceptance of NCLEX in the UK and the requirements for becoming a registered nurse in the UK.

NCLEX Acceptance in the UK

The NCLEX exam is not accepted in the UK. The UK does not recognize the NCLEX as a valid test for nurses seeking registration with the Nursing and Midwifery Council (NMC), which is the regulatory body for nursing and midwifery professions in the UK.

If you are a nurse who has passed the NCLEX exam and wishes to work in the UK, you will need to go through the process of registering with the NMC. This process involves meeting certain education and language requirements and passing an approved test of competence.

Requirements for Registering with the NMC

To register with the NMC, you must meet certain requirements, including:

Education Requirements

You must have completed an approved nursing program that meets the NMC’s education standards. The nursing program must be equivalent to a UK nursing program and must have included a minimum of 4,600 hours of theory and practice.

If you have completed a nursing program outside of the UK, you will need to have your qualifications assessed by the NMC to determine whether they meet the required standards.

Language Requirements

You must be able to communicate effectively in English, both in writing and speaking. If English is not your first language, you will need to demonstrate your proficiency by passing an approved English language test.

The NMC accepts several English language tests, including the International English Language Testing System (IELTS), the Occupational English Test (OET), and the Pearson Test of English Academic (PTE Academic).

Test of Competence

You must pass an approved test of competence before you can register with the NMC. The test of competence assesses your nursing knowledge and clinical skills and ensures that you meet the NMC’s standards for safe and effective practice.

There are two parts to the test of competence: the computer-based test (CBT) and the objective structured clinical examination (OSCE).

The CBT is a multiple-choice exam that assesses your theoretical knowledge of nursing practice. The OSCE is a practical exam that assesses your clinical skills. Both exams are designed to test your ability to practice safely and effectively as a nurse in the UK.

Preparing for the Test of Competence

Preparing for the test of competence is essential if you want to pass the exam and become a registered nurse in the UK. There are several steps you can take to prepare for the exam, including:

Review the NMC Standards

The NMC sets standards for nursing practice in the UK. Reviewing these standards can help you understand the expectations for safe and effective nursing practice and can help you prepare for the test of competence.

Study the Test Blueprint

The NMC provides a test blueprint that outlines the content and format of the CBT and the OSCE. Studying the test blueprint can help you identify the areas where you need to focus your studying.

Take Practice Tests

Taking practice tests can help you identify your strengths and weaknesses and can help you prepare for the format and content of the exam. The NMC provides practice tests on its website that you can use to prepare for the test of competence.

Use Study Materials

There are many study materials available for the test of competence, including textbooks, online courses, and review guides. You may also consider working with a tutor or attending a test preparation course to help you prepare for the exam.

Get Clinical Experience

Having clinical experience can help you prepare for the OSCE and can also demonstrate your practical nursing skills to the NMC. Consider seeking out opportunities to gain clinical experience in the UK, such as through a nursing agency or volunteer work.

Take Care of Yourself

Preparing for a test can be stressful, so it’s important to take care of yourself. Get enough sleep, eat a healthy diet, and take breaks when you need to. Taking care of yourself can help you stay focused and calm during the test.

In conclusion, the NCLEX exam is not accepted in the UK. Nurses who wish to work in the UK must go through the process of registering with the NMC, which involves meeting education and language requirements and passing an approved test of competence. Preparing for the test of competence is essential if you want to pass the exam and become a registered nurse in the UK. By reviewing the NMC standards, studying the test blueprint, taking practice tests, using study materials, gaining clinical experience, and taking care of yourself, you can give yourself the best chance of success on the test of competence.