Nursing Tutor Sample Question Papers

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Nursing Tutor Sample Question Papers

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Sample Question Papers for Nursing Tutor Jobs

1. Nursing Diagnosis are mostly different from Medical diagnosis. In that they are
A. Dependent upon Medical diagnosis for the direction of appropriate intervention
B. Primarily concerned with caring, while medical diagnosis are concerned with curing
C. Primarily concerned with human response, while medical diagnosis are concerned with pathological response
D. Primarily concerned with psychosocial parameters, while medical diagnosis are concerned with physiological parameters.

2. A woman who is rhesus negative undergoes termination of pregnancy for medical reasons at 16 weeks. What dose of anti D immunoglobulin should she receive immediately after the procedure
A. 250 I.U.
B. 500 I.U.
C. 1000 I.U.
D. 1500 I.U.

3. Cob-web appearance of CSF indicate
A. Viral meningitis
B. Bacterial meningitis
C. TB meningitis
D. Encephalitis

4. An indication of success in community organizing is when people are able to
A. Participate in community activities for solution of community problem
B. Implement activities for solution of community problem
C. Plan activities for solution of community problem
D. Identify the health problems as a common concern.

5. A Nursing department in an acute care setting, decides to re-design its Nursing practice based on therapeutic framework, the feedback from patients, families and staff, reflects that caring is a key element. Which theorists best support this concept?
A. Erikson
B. Mashlow
C. Rogers
D. Watson

6. Patient with posterior and inferior wall infarction should be observed for
A. Hypertension
B. Tachycardia
C. Bradycardia
D. None of the above.

7. The foundation of modern Public Health Care in India was due to report of
A. Mudaliar committee
B. Bhore committee
C. Sanitary commission
D. None of the above

8. In a normal distribution curve which of the following is true?
A. Mean= Median
B. Mean= SD
C. Mean= Variance
D. Mean= 2xSD

9. In the following, which vaccine is inactivated (killed) vaccine
D. Rabies

10. An illusion of recognition in which a new situation is incorrectly regarded as a repetition of a previous memory is called
A. Jamisvu
B. Dejavu
C. Dementia
D. Amnesia

11. Which is primarily, a developmental task of middle age?
A. Learning and acquiring new skills and information
B. Re-discovering or developing satisfaction in one’s relationship with significant others
C. Relying strongly upon spiritual beliefs
D. Risk taking and its perceived consequences

12. Quantitatively combining the findings of multiple research studies on a particular topic is known as
A. Secondary data analysis
B. Meta analysis
C. Methodological studies
D. Operational research

13. Sequential sampling is
A. Non-probability sampling technique
B. Probability sampling technique
C. Consecutive sampling technique
D. Quota sampling technique

14. Cryptorchidism means
A. Enlargement of testes
B. Inflammation of testes
C. Small testes
D. Undescended testes

15. After the delivery of foetus, the placenta is removed by
A. Fundal pressure
B. D&C
C. Brandt – Andrews manoeuvre
D. Manual removal

16. An 80 year old patient placed in isolation when infected with MRSA. On admission patient was alert and oriented but is now having visual disorientation and can follow only simple direction. The Nurse recognizes that the change in patient’s mental status are related to
A. Fluid and electrolyte imbalance
B. Sensory deprivation
C. Non stimulating environment
D. Sundowning

17. Foetal growth is maximally affected by
A. Growth hormone
B. Insulin
C. Thyroxine
D. Cortisol

18. One year post certificate course in psychiatric nursing in India was started
A. In 1965
B. In 1966
C. In 1956
D. In 1975

19. Pantaplegia means quadriplegia plus
A. Incontinence
B. Retention
C. Paralytic ileus
D. Respiratory paralysis

20. A male patient is having tonic clonic seizures. What should a nurse do first.
A. Elevate the head end of the bed
B. Restrain patient’s arms & legs
C. Place a padded tongue blade in patient’s mouth
D. Take measures to prevent injury

Interview MCQ
Quiz Previous Papers

21. Management of increased intracranial pressure includes hyperventilation, because it causes
A. Vasoconstriction
B. Vasodilatation
C. Maintains cerebral perfusion
D. None of the above

22. You are demonstrating to a class of nursing students, how to auscultate for heart sounds. These heart sounds are the sounds of the valves
A. Opening
B. Closing
C. Galloping
D. None of the above

23. A pregnant mother received her ante-natal tetanus toxoid doses. Subsequently her baby will have protection from tetanus for how long
A. For 1 full year of life
B. For 2 months after birth
C. For 4 months after birth
D. For 6 months after birth.

24. Which of the following is not a step of the quantitative research process
A. Formulation of research problem
B. Review of literature
C. Formulation of hypothesis
D. Meta-analysis of research studies

25. During ECT well padded tongue depressor is placed in between teeth
A. To enhance effectiveness of ECT
B. To reduce anxiety
C. To prevent biting of tongue
D. To prevent fractures

26. Most important indication of the Glasgow coma scale is
A. Verbal response
B. Eye response
C. Motor response
D. Pupil response

27. Nursing Research Society of India was established in the year:
A. 1976
B. 1986
C. 1996
D. 2006

28. Breast feeding is contraindicated if the mother is taking
A. Propranolol
B. Broad spectrum antibiotics
C. Insulin
D. First generation sulfonylureas

29. While working ,one of the patient looked at you and said that ‘you are hot’. What kind of communication is he using
A. Denotative
B. Flirtatious
C. Connotative
D. Expressive.

30. Curriculum evaluation occurring during the course and providing information to programme developers to enable them to correct flaws detected in the programme is called
A. Diagnostic evaluation
B. Summative evaluation
C. Formative evaluation
D. None of the above

31. The PHN bag is an important tool in providing nursing care during home visits. The most important principle in the bag technique states that it
A. Should save time & effort
B. Should minimise, if not, totally prevent infection
C. Should not overshadow concern for patient & his family
D. May be done in variety of ways depending on home situation

32. Einthoven Triangle, is formed by
A. Three standard limb leads
B. Three augmented leads
C. Three chest leads
D. None of the above

33. Which action, best describes sentinel event alert?
A. Documenting the break- down in communication during a shift report
B. Indicating that the community or institution is unsafe
C. Recording the harm done when a medication error occurs
D. Signalling the need for immediate investigation and response

34. Among children aged 2 months to 3 years, the most prevalent form of meningitis is caused by which microorganism
A. Haemophilus influenzas
B. Morbillivirus
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Neisseria meningitides

35. Identify one characteristic that is not good to formulate a good question
A. Guiding but not leading
B. Stimulates thinking
C. Ambiguous
D. Purposeful

36. What is the main purpose of sentinel surveillance?
A. To depict natural history of the disease
B. To find out total number of cases
C. For intervention of therapeutics
D. To prevent sentinel piles

37. Reasoning from general to specific is called?
A. Deduction
B. Induction
C. Observation
D. Participation

38. Principles of effective communication in nursing are
A. Clarity, feedback and informality
B. Concise, clear and clinical
C. Clarity, attention, feedback, informality, consistency, timeliness and adequacy
D. None of the above

39. Which of the following is not the purpose of EBP
A. To improve patient outcome
B. To obtain more research funds
C. To eliminate unsound practice
D. To provide high quality care

40. Assertive communication enables a person to be honest, enhances relations, avoids power games and it is a vehicle for clear outcome. It includes all except
A. Content
B. Non-verbal cues
C. Process
D. Argument

41. A patient known to have uncontrolled diabetes is wheeled in the emergency room with abdominal pain, vomiting, nausea and sweetish odour of breath. You will monitor this patient for
A. Hypoglycemia
C. Non-ketotic hyperglycemia
D. None of the above

42. The best marker for thyroid related disease:
A. T3
B. T4
D. Thyroglobin

43. When examining a patient who is paralyzed below T4 level, what does the Nurse expect to find?
A. Flaccidity of the upper extremity
B. Hyperreflexia and Spasticity of upper extremity
C. Impaired diaphragmatic functions requiring ventilator support
D. Independent use of upper extremity and efficient cough

44. The five A’s of Evidence Based Practice are
A. Assess, acknowledge, approve, acquire & account
B. Account, approve, acknowledge, apply & ask
C. Ask, acquire, appraise, apply & assess
D. Appraise, apprehend, approve, acquire & assess

45. 23 year old primigravida comes in emergency at 32 weeks gestation with blurring vision and gross oedema. Her BP is 170/115 mm Hg. What is her most likely diagnosis
A. Hypertension
B. Renal disease
C. Pre-eclampsia
D. Eclampsia

46. Nurses as they progress in their education will most likely do, which of the following things
A. Become less interested in bedside nursing
B. Learn to develop a personal theory of nursing
C. Lose their ability to think critically
D. Enjoy doing paper work

47. Dipyridamole is an anti-platelet drug belonging to
A. Platelet aggregation inhibitor
B. Platelet adhesion inhibitor
C. Glycoprotein IIb, IIIa inhibitor
D. None of the above

48. Lab results of a patient with disseminated intravascular coagulation
A. Increased level of fibrin split products
B. Increased level of fibrinogen
C. Increased platelet count
D. Prolonged prothrombin& partial thromboplastin time

49. Which clients are considered target for DOTS category
A. Sputum negative cavitary cases
B. Clients returning after default
C. Relapses & failures of previous TB treatment
D. Clients diagnosed for the first time through positive sputum exam

50. The 4 ‘C’ of communication are
A. Clear, concise, clinical and complete
B. Clear, concise, captivating and consistent
C. Clear, coherent, controlled and credibility
D. Concise, consistent, controlled and coherent