Obstetrics and Gynaecology Model Question

Obstetrics and Gynaecology Model Papers are available in our web page. However, to help the aspirants in getting their dream jobs we have given the direct download link for the Obstetrics and Gynaecology Model Question Paper Pdf in the section below.

We advise the applicants who are in search of Obstetrics and Gynaecology Model Question Paper to refer the syllabus and exam pattern details. Obstetrics and Gynaecology Model Question Paper with Answers are given in the section following.

Model Question on Obstetrics and Gynaecology

1. Nerve roots blocked in pudendal nerve block is
(1) L1,2,3
(2) L2,3
(3) S2,3,4
(4) S4

2. After a difficult delivery involving shoulder dystocia, the paediatrician tells you the infant has suffered an injury. Which of the outcomes described below is most likely ?
(1) Mother had uterine atony.
(2) New born has had a humerus fracture
(3) New born has a clavicular fracture
(4) New born exhibits brachial plexus injury

3. Which of the following physiological response is typically seen in preclamptic patients ?
(1) Increased production of nitric acid
(2) Increased sensitivity to angiotensin
(3) Decreased Reactivity to norepinephrine
(4) All the above

4. Which of the following is the most important predictor of neurological outcome of survivor after death of a cotwin ?
(1) Chorionicity
(2) Gestational age at the time of demise
(3) Whether malformations are present in the deceased twin
(4) Length of time between demise of cotwin & delivery of survivor.

5. Twin peak sign is seen in
(1) Monochorionic diamniotic twins
(2) Dichorionic monoamniotic twins
(3) Conjoined twins
(4) Diamniotic Dichronic Twins

6. Which Haematological criteria remains unchanged in pregnancy ?
(1) Blood volume
(2) TIBC
(3) MCHC
(4) Ferritin

7. Which of the following conditions improves during pregnancy due to pregnancy induced hypervolemia ?
(1) Aortic Stenosis
(2) Mitral Stenosis
(3) Mitral Valve Prolapse
(4) All the above

8. A 32 year old female with diabetes visits antenatal clinic at 6 weeks of amennorhoea. She has not been on any treatment. What is the first step in management ?
(1) Start insulin
(2) Start diet modification
(3) Perform HbAlc
(4) Perform PPBs

9. Which intravenous antihypertensive drug commonly used to treat intrapartum severe range hypertension is properly matched with its most notable side effect ?
(1) Hydralazine — Fetal Arrhythmia
(2) Labetalol — Neonatal Tachycardia
(3) Hydralazine – Maternal Tachycardia
(4) Labetalol — Neonatal Rebound Hypertension

10. A 30 Year’ old Primipara attends counselling prior to undergoing IVF treatment, due to strong family history of venous thromboembolism in several – 1° degree relatives. She has BMI of 34 and no previous major medical problems. Which blood test is most helpful in management ?
(1) Thrombophila Screen
(2) Anticardiolipin Antibodies
(3) Lupus Anticoagulant
(4) Methyl Tetrahydrofolate Reductase Genotype

11. How long does it take for a Vicryl (Polyglactin) suture to get absorbed ?
(1) 45-60 Days
(2) 60-90 Days
(3) 90-120 Days
(4) 120-180 Days

12. During placement of forceps blade, What is purpose of having the right hand between fetal head and vaginal side wall ?
(1) Protects fetal ear
(2) Identifies ischial spines
(3) Reduces maternal discomfort during placement
(4) Guides blade into position & protects vaginal side walls

13. What is the preferred total negative pressure generated prior to initiation of traction during vacuum extraction ?
(1) 0.2 kg/cm2
(2) 0.8 kg/cm2
(3) 1.2 kg/cm2
(4) 1.6 kg/cm2

14. Which of the following is a disadvantage of uterine exteriorization of uterus for repair of uterine incision during lbcs ?
(1) Increased blood loss
(2) Increased febrile morbidity
(3) Increased Nausea & Vomiting
(4) Increased postoperative infection

15. Which of the following is true regarding uterine scar exploration following successful vaginal birth after previous caesarean delivery ?
(1) Routine — scar examination is recommended.
(2) Chance of identifying a defect is <0.1%
(3) Any identified defect requires immediate exploratory laprotomy
(4) Need for exploratory laprotomy is determined by extent of defect and presence of active management.

16. During caesarean delivery in which of the following settings should the uterine incision be made relatively high to avoid uterine vessel laceration or unintended entry into vagina ?
(1) Maternal Anemia
(2) Fetal Malpresentation
(3) A completely Dilated Cervix
(4) LSCS performed prior to onset of labour

17. A patient in early labour is sitting up for her epidural. An anesthetic test dose is given. The patient’s heart rate and BP. rise immediately after administration of test does. What has most likely cause for this change in vital signs ?
(1) Test dose was given intravenously
(2) Patient experienced a contraction
(3) She is experiencing a high spinal blockade
(4) This is normal response to a test dose

18. Which of the below factors can influence spread of anesthesia after continuous epidural catheter placement ?
(1) Maternal position
(2) Dose of anesthetic
(3) Location of catheter tip
(4) All the above

19. Modified BPS consists of
(1) NST with AFI
(2) NST with fetal breathing
(3) NST with fetal movements
(4) NST with fetal tone

20. A couple has a child with down’s syndrome karyotype being 21/21 translocation. The father is a balanced translocation carrier. What is the risk of recurrence of down’s syndrome in subsequent pregnancies ?
(1) 100%
(2) 50%
(3) 25%
(4) 0%

21. High resistance flow in uterine artery between 22 & 24 weeks gestations is correlated with
(1) Still births
(2) Abruption of placenta
(3) Preeclampsia
(4) All the above

22. A31 year old G2P1 had a1st trimester nuchal translucency screen showing increased risk for trisomy 18 and a PAPP-A <5th percentile. She underwent CV sampling, which showed normal karyotype. What is significance of a PAPP-A <5th percentile ?
(1) None
(2) There is high likelihood of oligohydramnios
(3) There is increased risk of skeletal dysplasia
(4) There is association with preeclampsia, fetal growth restriction & fetal demise

23. What is the best way to identify Genetic abnormality in a still born fetus ?
(1) Autopsy
(2) Karyotype
(3) Maternal cell free DNA testing
(4) Chromosomal microarray analysis

24. Which does not have live birth as denominator
(1) Infant mortality rate
(2) Neonatal mortality rate
(3) Child mortality rate
(4) Child death rate

25. Which of the following may impact the apgar score ?
(1) Prematurity
(2) Fetal Malformations
(3) Maternal Medications
(4) All the above

26. Under MCH programme Iron & Folic acid tablets to be given daily to mother
(1) 60 mg Iron + 500 pgm Folic Acid
(2) 100 mg Iron + 500 pgm Folic Acid
(3) 60 mg Iron + 100 pgm Folic Acid
(4) 100 mg Iron + 1000 pgm Folic Acid

27. Gene type involved in PCOD is
(1) Cyp 19
(2) Cyp 20
(3) Cyp 21
(4) Cyp 36

28. Best time to check levels of FSH to detect menopause transition :
(1) Day 2-5 after LMP
(2) Day 7-10 after LMP
(3) Day 11 — 14 after LMP
(4) Just before menses

29. First sign of Puberty in Girls is
(1) Breast budding
(2) Peak height velocity
(3) Menarche
(4) Pubic & Axillary hair growth

30. In testicular feminization syndrome gonadectomy is indicated
(1) As soon as it is diagnosed
(2) At puberty
(3) Only when malignancy develops
(4) When hirsuitism is evident

31. Whiff’s test is positive in
(1) Candidiasis
(2) Chlamydial infections
(3) Trichomonas Vaginitis
(4) HSV infection

32. In baden walker halfway system of classification of prolapse. The reference point is
(1) Hymen
(2) Introitus
(3) Internal Os
(4) External Os

33. A 70 year old woman undergoes sacrospinous fixation one week ago. She was readmitted with severe right buttock and perineal pain, which is aggravated in sitting position. Which is the nerve most likely involved ?
(1) Genitofemoral Nerve
(2) Ilioinguinal Nerve
(3) Obturator Nerve
(4) Pudendal Nerve

34. Baldy webster operation is done in case of
(1) Congenital prolapse
(2) Retroversion of uterus
(3) Inversion of uterus
(4) Prolapse in females <40 years age

35. Among surgeries for correcting SUI, long term success rate is maximum with
(1) Burch’s Colposuspension
(2) Stamey’s Repair
(3) Kelly’s Stitch
(4) Aldridge surgery

36. Absent fructose in seminal fluid suggests
(1) congenital absence of seminal vesicle
(2) ejaculatory duct obstruction
(3) None
(4) Both

37. Which is not an assisted reproduction technique ?
(1) Gift
(2) Zift
(3) IVF& ET
(4) Artificial Insemination

38. Ulipristal Acetate is
(1) GaRH Antagonist
(2) Androgen Antagonist
(3) Selective — esrtogen receptor modulator
(4) Selective progestrone receptor modulator

39. Which nerve or nerve plexus provides sensory innervation of the cervix ?
(1) Pudenal nerve
(2) Superior Hypogastric nerve plexus
(3) Pelvic Splanchnic nerve plexus
(4) Sacral Splanchnic nerve

40. When choriocarcinoma metasises it has a propensity for which type of sprea ?
(1) Direct invasion
(2) Hematogenous
(3) Lymphatic
(4) Surface Implantation

41. Which of the following is true about swyer syndrome ?
(1) Can be fertile with surrogacy
(2) Can be fertile with ovum donation
(3) Presents with primary infertility
(4) Gonadectomy is indicated for all patients

42. A 20 year old short statured female comes to OPD with H/o prim amenorrhoea. She has webbing of neck normal external & internal genitalia. Breast & pubic hair development absent. Diagnosis of turner’s syndrome is made. However, consultant wants to rule out ‘Y’ chromosome on genetic phenotyping. Why ?
(1) Itis a routine
(2) Those with Y chromosome are at risk of germ cell malignancy.
(3) Diagnosis can be confirmed only if Y chromosome Is absent.
(4) Those with Y chromosome should be reared as males

43. A 62 years old women presents with postmenopausal bleeding. Biopsy shows grade 2 endometroid cancer at fundus of uterus. She has uncontrolled DM & HT. What is the most appropriate next step ?
(1) Perform MRI Scan
(2) Perform TAH + BSO
(3) Perform TAH + BSO + Pelvic & Para aortic lymph node dissection
(4) Surgery followed by RT

44. A lady presented with CA endometrium involving >50% of myometrium extending to vagina & positive peritoneal cytology, But no involvement of para aortic lymph nodes. What is staging of disease ?
(1) III A
(2) III B
(3) III C1
(4) III C2

45. A 30 Year old female undergoes Pap’s smear. Her report shows a typical squamous cells of unknown significance. What is the next best step in management ?
(1) Repeat Pap smear in 6 months
(2) Repeat Pap smear in 2 years
(3) Perform colposcopy
(4) Do HPV-DNA testing

46. HPV Triage strategy, includes all except
(1) Conventional Pap smear
(2) Liquid based cytology
(3) Hybrid capture 2 for HPV DNA
(4) Colposcopy

47. A lady undergoes radical hysterectomy for stage Ib CA Cervix. It was found that cancer extends to lower part of body of uterus & upper part of cervix. Next step of management is
(1) Chemotherapy
(2) Radiotherapy
(3) Chemoradiation
(4) Follow up

48. Which of the following media is used only in operative hysteroscopy ?
(1) CO2
(2) 0.9% saline
(3) Ringer Lactate
(4) Mannitol 5%

49. After undergoing abdominal hysterectomy, in the postoperative period, patient develops weakness of hip flexion and adduction. And is unable to extend the knee. The knee jerk is lost & there is altered sensation over medial aspect of thigh & calf. Which nerve is most likely damaged ?
(1) Femoral nerve
(2) Obturator nerve
(3) Pudendal nerve
(4) Genitofemoral nerve

50. In examination of a victim of sexual assault, toluidine blue dye test is done to identify
(1) recent micro injuries
(2) healed micro injuries
(3) dried seminal stains
(4) clotted blood