Obstetrics and Gynaecology Practice Set

Obstetrics and Gynaecology Practice Set paper for the written examination is given below. Candidates who are looking for Obstetrics and Gynaecology exam Practice Set paper can find in this section. The applied candidates who are getting prepared for the Obstetrics and Gynaecology can view this page for the Obstetrics and Gynaecology Last Ten Years Practice Set Papers.

Obstetrics and Gynaecology Practice Set

Download the Obstetrics and Gynaecology Practice Set & Solutions & make it as a reference for your exam preparation. Take advantage of these Obstetrics and Gynaecology Practice Set Papers in a proper manner to get qualifying Marks. Last 5 years Obstetrics and Gynaecology Practice Set Papers provided here. Candidates who are applied for the above exam can check and download the Obstetrics and Gynaecology Practice Set Papers from here.

Practice Set of Obstetrics and Gynaecology

1) Commonest cause of death in cervical cancer –
A) Renal failure
B) Haemorrhage
C) Sepsis
D) Hepatic failure

2) Commonest site of Pelvic endometriosis is-
A) Uterosacral Ligament
B) Ovary
C) Rectovarginal septum
D) Pelvic Peritoneum

3) All are germcell tumour of Ovary except –
A) Chorio carcinoma
B) Grannulosa cell tumour
C) Dysgerminoma
D) Endometrial sinus tumour

4) Intrasytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) is indicated in –
A) Tubal Block
B) Mild aligosprmia
D) Surgically retrieved sperms

5) Organ develop from Mesonephric duct –
A) Uterus
B) Fallopian tubes
C) Upper vagina
D) None of above

6) Which of the following drug reduces uterine contractility and causes pulmonary oedema?
A) Retodrine
B) Nifedepine
C) Atosiban
D) Indomethacin

7) Labia minor contains
A) Sebaceous gland
B) Sweat gland
C) Hair follicles
D) All of the above

8) Parts of broad ligament are following except.
A) Infundibulo pelvic ligaments
B) Round Ligament
C) Mesosalpinx
D) Mesovarium

9) Cervical lymphatic drain into following except –
A) Inguinal lymph nodes
B) Internal ileac lymph nodes
C) External ileac lymph nodes
D) Obturator lymph nodes

10) Sequelae of Acute PID are following except –
A) Recurrent fatal wastage
B) Infertility
C) Ectopic Pregnancy
D) Chronic pelvic pain

11) FSH level rise in following except –
A) Turners syndrome
B) Post menopausal women
D) Pre-mature ovarian failure

12) FSH level in post menopausal women are –
A) Above 40 IU/L
B) 15-20 IU/L
C) 5-8 IU/L
D) 6-9 IU/L

13) Commonest benign tumour of ovary among the following is –
A) Dermoid cyst
B) Mucinous cystadenoma
C) Serous cystadenoma
D) Endometreoma

14) Commonest cause of male infertility amongst following is –
A) Sperm autoimmunity
B) Genital tract infection
C) Genital tract obstraction
D) Defective spermetogensesis

15) Commonest secondary change in uterine fibroid is –
A) Hyaline degeneration
B) Sarcomatous change
C) Red degeneration
D) Fatty degeneration

16) Oestrogen progestin combined contraceptive pill use for prolong period will decrease incidents of –
A) Cancer cervix
B) Ovarian cancer
C) Breast Cancer
D) All of Above

17) 40 Yrs. Old women having 3 children with procedentia surgical treatment will be –
A) Lefort’s operation
B) Fothergills operation
C) Cirvico pexy
D) Ward-mayo operation

18) Commonest cause of VVF in India is –
A) Obstructed labour
B) Advance vaginal malignancy
C) Prolong use of pessary for uterine prolapse
D) Radiotherapy in Carcinoma cervix

19) Germ cell tumour of ovary is –
A) Brenner’s tumour
B) Dysgerminoma
C) Theca cell Tumour
D) Clear cell Carcinoma

20) Combined oral contraceptive pills is contraindicated in following except –
A) Nulliparity
B) Thrombo embolism disorder
C) Active liver disease
D) Hyperlipidimea

Previous Papers Practice Set
Sample Papers Quiz
Model Question MCQs
Short Question Questions and Answers

21) Pearl index in highest with –
A) Calendar rhythm method
B) Barrier contraceptive
C) Combined oral contraceptive
D) Intra uterine device

22) For turner syndrome all are true EXCEPT –
A) Absence of sex chromatin body
B) Cubitus vulgus
C) Short stature
D) Normal ovary

23) Amongst following most likely to be solid malignant tumour of ovary is –
A) Fibroma
B) Mesonephroma
C) Thecoma granulose cell tumour
D) Brenner’s Tumour

24) Component of fothergills operation are all except –
A) Shorting of uterosacral ligament
B) Amputation of cervix
C) Anterior colporraphy
D) Tightining of Maecenrodt’s ligament in front of cervix

25) Virilising tumour of the ovary are all except –
A) Granulosa cell tumour
B) Adrenal Like tumour of ovary
C) Arrhenoblastoma
D) Sertoli leydig cell tumour

26) Primary amnorrhea with absence uterus will be –
A) Turner’s syndrome
B) Imperforated hymen
C) Premature ovarian failure
D) Testicular feminisation syndrome

27) Call exner bodies are found in –
A) Branner’s tumour
B) Arrhenoblastoma
C) Endometreal sinus tumour
D) Granulosa Theca cell tumour

28) All of following is used in DIC except:-
A) Heparin
B) Volume expanders
C) Blood transfusion
D) Intravenous fluids

29) Left ovarian vein drains into –
A) Inferior vena cava
B) Left Renal vain
C) Left common ileac vein
D) Left hypogastric vein

30) Post abortal sepsis causing renal failure is likely due to
A) E. coli
B) Proteus
C) Clostridium
D) Pseudomonos

31) Risk factor for endometrial carcinoma are following except –
A) Obesity
B) Diabetes
C) Use of Estrogen
D) Multiparity

32) Signet ring cell is diagnostic of
A) Krukenberg’s tumour
B) Granulosa cell tumour
C) Sereous cystadeno carcinoma ovary
D) Brenner’s tumour

33) Mayer Rokitansky kuster hauser syndrome is assocaited with –
A) Vaginal agenesis
B) Tubal agenesis
C) Ovarian agenesis
D) Bicornuate uterus

34) High serum level of FSH are present in following except –
A) Resistant ovary syndroms
B) Premature ovarian failure
C) Sheehan syndrome
D) Menopause

35) In coagulation failure serum level of fibrinogen is less than:-
A) 100 mg. /dl
B) 450 mg. /dl
C) 200 mg. /dl
D) 250 mg. /dl

36) In Testicular feminisation syndrome gonaductomy is indicated in XY female at age of –
A) 16-18 Yrs.
B) 10-11 Yrs.
C) Above 25 Yrs.
D) 12-13 Yrs.

37) Insulin resistance in pregnancy is because of following except-
A) Human Placental Lactogen
B) Progesteron
D) Estrogen

38) Transvaginal sonography can detect fetal cardiac activity in –
A) 6 weeks
B) 7 weeks
C) 8 weeks
D) 10 weeks

39) Hormone responsible for decidual reaction & arias stella reaction in ectopic pregnancy is-
A) Oestrogen
B) Progesterone

40) Trophoblast give rise to following except –
A) Placenta
B) Decidua
C) Chorion
D) Amnion

41) Implantation occurs after how many days of ovulation –
A) 3-5 Days
B) 7-9 Days
C) 13-15 Days
D) None of Above

42) Chromosomal number of spermatocyte
A) 44 XY
B) 22 XY
C) 22 XX
D) 46 XX

43) Sperm capacitation takes about –
A) 2-4 Hrs.
B) 14-16 Hrs.
C) 6-8 Hrs.
D) 22-24 Hrs.

44) The formation of primodial follictes in human fetus in complete by –
A) 4 Weeks
B) 13 Weeks
C) 4th Month to 7th Month
D) 8 Weeks

45) The Diameter in face presentation with fully extended head is –
A) Suboccipito bregmatic
B) Sub mento bregmatic
C) Occipito mental
D) Sub mento vertical

46) Motile sparmetozoa found on a wet mount of vaginal secretion are indicative of intercourse within the past –
A) 6 Hrs
B) 12 Hrs
C) 48 Hrs
D) 24 Hrs

47) The largest presenting diameter in cephalic presentation is –
A) Biparictal diameter
B) Suboccipito Bragmatic
C) Occipito frontal
D) None of the above

48) Most common site of puerperal infection is –
A) Episiotomy Wound
B) Placental Site
C) Vaginal Laceration
D) Cervical Laceration

49) Commonest cause for puerperal sepsis among following is –
A) Streptococci
B) Anaerobes
C) Gonococci
D) Staphylococci

50) Galactokinesis means –
A) Sustaining Lactation
B) Secretion of milk
C) Ejection of milk
D) Synthesis of milk