Obstetrics and Gynaecology Sample Question

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Sample Question on Obstetrics and Gynaecology

1. Which of the following is used in rape victims to determine rupture of hymen and whether rupture is recent or old ?
(1) Glaister keene rods
(2) Gaba rods
(3) Gram rod
(4) Cylinder rod

2. An 89 years old woman attends urogynae OPD. She is V-frail for her | symptoms of increased frequency of urination, Urgency, urge incontinence. Which should be the most appropriate first line therapy ?
(1) Duloxetine
(2) Mirabegron
(3) Oxybutynin
(4) Tolterodine

3. Hymen tear in virgin is most commonly located at
(1) 4-8 o’clock
(2) 5-11 o’clock
(3) 9-12 o’clock
(4) 1-6 o’clock

4. A 16 years old female presents with primary amenorrhoea with B/L inguinal hernia. She has normal sexual development with no pubic hair. USG shows no uterus & ovaries and blind vagina. Diagnosis is
(1) Turner’s syndrome
(2) Mullerian Agenesis
(3) Star syndrome
(4) Androgen insensitivity syndrome

5. A 25 year old woman underwent induced clomiphene ovulation on USG, ovary showed follices serum oestradiol levels 808 pg ml. What is the next step ?
(1) Retrieve follicles
(2) Give Cabergoline
(3) Cancel Cycle
(4) Withold HCG

6. Which of the following is not ‘std’ ?
(1) Trichomoniasis
(2) Bacterial Vaginosis
(3) Gonorrhoea
(4) Candida infection

7. The number of live births per 1000 women in the reproductive age group in a year refers to
(1) Total fertility rate
(2) Gross reproduction rate
(3) Net reproduction rate
(4) General fertility rate

8. Demographers are of the view that the demographic goal of NRR = I, can be achieved only if the couple protection rate exceeds
(1) 40%
(2) 50%
(3) 60%
(4) 70%

9. Which of the following includes mortality rate in it?
(1) TFR
(2) GFR
(3) NRR
(4) GRR

10. Which of the following year in the history of demography of India is known as the year of big divide ?
(1) 1881
(2) 1921
(3) 1947
(4) 1978

11. Unmet need for contraception in a 35 year old female is for
(1) spacing birth
(2) limiting birth
(3) improve maternal health
(4) improve family health

12. The most common side effect of IUCD insertion is
(1) Bleeding
(2) Pain
(3) Pelvic Infection
(4) Ectopic Pregnancy

13. Ideal time to perform post partum sterilization. As per government of India guidelines is
(1) from 12 hrs to 7 days of delivery
(2) from 24 hrs to 7 days of delivery
(3) from 48 hrs to 7 days of delivery
(4) within 7 days of delivery

14. All are Socio-demographic goals of national population policy except
(1) achieve 100% institutional deliveries.
(2) reduce MMR < 100 per Lac live births
(3) achieve 100% registration of births, deaths, marriages & pregnancies
(4) prevent & control communicable diseases

15. A 32 years old P2L2 Lady comes five days after unprotected sexual intercourse. What will be your advice for contraception ?
(1) Levonorgestrel 0.75 mg.
(2) Copper IUD.
(3) Two tablets of high dose OCP, repeated after 24 hrs.
(4) Laproscopic tubectomy

16. All of the following are features of post-tubal ligation syndrome except
(1) Abnormal menstrual bleeding
(2) Dysmenorrhoea
(3) Pelvic pain
(4) Dyspareunia

17. True about Implanon
(1) Releases > 76mg/day of Drug
(2) Prevents STD
(3) Life span is 3 years
(4) Contains LNG

18. Which of the following is not a noncontraceptive use of levonorgestrel IUCD ?
(1) Endometriosis
(2) Premenstrual tension
(3) Complex Endometrial Hyperplasia
(4) Emergency Contraception

19. Yuzpee & Lance regimen must be administered within maximum
(1) 3 Hours
(2) 12 Hours
(3) 24 Hours
(4) 72 Hours

20. Ideal contraceptive for a couple who are living separately in two cities & meet only occasionally :
(1) Barrier Methods
(2) OCP’s
(3) IUCD
(4) Inj. DMPA

21. Ideal contraceptive for lactating women
(1) POP
(2) IUCD
(3) Barrier methods
(4) Lactational Amenorrhoea

22. The number displayed on Karman’s Canula corresponds to
(1) Diameter of Canula in mm.
(2) Diameter of Canula in cm.
(3) Surface Area of Canula
(4) Length of Canula

23. MVA can be used to terminate pregnancy maximally
(1) upto 12 wks.
(2) upto 9 wks.
(3) upto 10 wks.
(4) upto 8 wks.

24. Sterilization of MVA instruments can be done by
(1) 2% glutaraldehyde for 10 hrs.
(2) 2% glutaraldehyde for 20 minutes
(3) Boiling water for 20 minutes
(4) None of the above

25. For MTP consent should be obtained from
(1) male partner
(2) male as well as the female partner
(3) female partner
(4) Consent is not required

26. Which of the following instrument most commonly causes uterine perforation ?
(1) Curette
(2) Hegar dilator
(3) Sponge holding forceps
(4) Suction Canula

27. What is risk of uterine rupture with medial termination of second trimester pregnancy in setting of one prior caesarian delivery ?
(1) 0.2%
(2) 0.4%
(3) 0.6%
(4) 0.8%

28. Which route of administration of misoprostol is least effective for cervical priming before dilation & curettage ?
(1) Oral
(2) Vaginal
(3) Sublingual
(4) All are equivalent

29. Ru 486 is effective for inducing abortion if duration of pregnancy is
(1) 63 Days
(2) 72 Days
(3) 88 Days
(4) 120 Days

30. Most life threatening complication of septic abortion is
(1) Peritonitis
(2) Renal Failure
(3) Respiratory distress syndrome
(4) Septicemia

31. Under CAC services, for MTP/CAC certificate, the trainee doctor must undergo the following :
(1) Observe 10 MTP/CAC cases
(2) Assist 10 MTP/CAC cases
(3) Perform 5 MTP/CAC cases independently (Under Supervision)
(4) All the above

32. Pratigya Campaign is about
(1) Women Education
(2) Ensuring Access to safe abortion care
(3) Child Education
(4) None of the above

33. With extra amniotic 0.1% ethacridine lactate use induction abortion interval varies from
(1) 6-12 Hrs
(2) 12-48 Hrs
(3) 4-6Hrs
(4) More than 48 Hrs

34. Mifepristone and misoprostol are currently licensed for induction of abortion upto
(1) 9 weeks gestation
(2) 10 weeks gestation
(3) 12 weeks gestation
(4) 8 weeks gestation

35. Form III of MTP deals with
(1) Patient details
(2) Monthly statement sent by institute to director of health services
(3) Register of all MTP’s to be kept in hospital for 5 years
(4) None of the above

36. A 45 years old nullipara comes to gynaeclinic. She is a carrier for BRCA Mutation. She wishes to discuss surgery to reduce cancer risk. What is her cumulative risk of developing ovarian type cancer by 70 years age ?
(1) 10%
(2) 25%
(3) 40%
(4) 55%

37. The WHO classification of ovulation disorders describes 3 classes. Which one of the following is characteristically associated with low FSH and low oestrogen (WHO class) ?
(1) Hyperprolactinemia
(2) Ovarian failure
(3) Ovarian Endometriosis
(4) Weight loss

38. Prior to a frogen embryo transfer a woman takes a course of oestradiol valerate to induce endometrial proliferation. What endometrial thickness as seen on ultrasound, should have been achieved for embryo transfer to proceed ?
(1) 1mm
(2) 3mm
(3) 4mm
(4) 5mm

39. A 31 year old presents to emergency OPD 3 days after an oocyte retrieval procedure. Patient is c/o of abdominal pain, vomiting, dizziness and shortness of breath. What would you want the emergency attendant to do while waiting for you to arrive ?
(1) Attach a pulse oximeter and ECG, administer analgesic and antiemetic.
(2) Administer 2-3 litres of fluid
(3) Arrange chest X-ray and ECG.
(4) Arrange urgent abdominal and chest ultrasound

40. A woman was found to be 10 weeks pregnant when she attended her colposcopy appointment for high grade dyskaryosis. The colposcopy suspected CINI. What is the further line of management ?
(1) Repeat colposcopy at six weeks postpartum.
(2) Repeat colposcopy at 12 weeks postpartum.
(3) Repeat colposcopy at 20 weeks gestation.
(4) Repeat colposcopy at term

41. What is the most common type of ovarian cancer diagnosed in pregnancy ?
(1) Epithelial tumor
(2) Germ cell tumor
(3) Sex cord stromal tumor
(4) Low malignant potential tumor

42. Which of the following drug used in SARS-Covid infection has shown to result in fetal ocular abnormalities in animal trials ?
(1) Remdesivir
(2) Dexamethasone
(3) Hydroxychloroquine
(4) None of the above

43. In a woman with known or suspected COVID-19 preferred tecolytic agent is
(1) Indomethacin
(2) Nifedipene
(3) Isoduprine
(4) None of the above

44. ELAGOLIX, the new USFDA approved drug is
(1) Aromatase inhibitor
(2) NSAID
(3) Oral GnRH antagonist
(4) None of the above

45. A 32 year old nulliparous woman presents with a complete miscarriage. This is now her third consecutive early pregnancy loss. Which investigation should be carried out ?
(1) Cervical length estimation
(2) Chlamydia test
(3) Cytogenetic analysis of products of conception
(4) Parental chromosome test.

46. Atosiban for tacolysis is used in an initial bolus dose of
(1) 6.75 mg IV
(2) 3.75 mg IV
(3) 3.75 mg IM
(4) None of the above

47. You are asked to see a 40 years old women referred by the urologist because of an incidental finding of a simple right ovarian cyst measuring 43 x 47 mm on pelvic ultrasound. She has no gynac complaints. What is your management plan ?
(1) CA-125 assay
(2) CT – Scan
(3) Gynac review in 3 months
(4) No follow up

48. HAART is now routine in management of HIV positive women in pregnancy and is very effective in reducing MTCT of HIV. What is the incidence of transmission reduced to
(1) 0.1-0.5%
(2) 1-2%
(3) 3-5%
(4) 6-8%

49. A 41 years old primigrawida is 14 weeks pregnant. She had IVF and has a dechorionic diamniotic twin pregnancy. She has a chronic kidney disease and is attending ANC for her 1st medical appointment. Which one of her risk factors is the strongest predisposition for preeclampsia ?
(1) age > 40 years
(2) chronic kidney disease
(3) IVF pregnancy
(4) Multiple pregnancy

50. Compared to unfractionated heparin which of the following statements, about LMWH is most accurate ?
(1) LMWH binds more effectively to antithrombin III and enhances the inhibition of coagulation of factor IX a.
(2) LMWH binds more strongly to endohedral cells and platelets.
(3) LMWH has a higher bioavailability at lower dose when administered SC.
(4) LMWH has a similar effect on bones and can induce osteoporosis.