Pharmacology Interview Questions

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Pharmacology Interview Questions

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Pharmacology Questions for Interview

1. Antiviral drug is in use for COVID-19 which was useful for Ebola virus
(1) Adefovir
(2) Remdesivir
(3) Telbuvudine
(4) Enfuvirtide

2. Following are the common properties of Aminoglycosides antibiotic except
(1) All are more active in acidic pH
(2) All are excreted unchanged in urine
(3) All exhibit ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity
(4) All are not absorbed orally

3. Which of the following anticancer drug is not obtained from plants ?
(1) Irmotecan
(2) Paclitaxel
(3) Doxorubicin
(4) Etoposidebine

4. Hemorrhagic cystitis is caused by
(1) Cyclophosphamide
(2) 6-mercaptopurine
(3) 5-Flurouracil
(4) Busulfan

5. Which of the following is not an alkylating agent ?
(1) Cyclophosphamide
(2) Lomustine (Nitrosourea)
(3) Dacarbazine
(4) Estramustine

6. Following statements regarding methotrexate are true except
(1) Toxicity of methotrexate can be reverse by Folic acid.
(2) Can be administrered by oral and IV route.
(3) It exerts major toxicity on bone marrow.
(4) It commonly used in psoriasis.

7. Treatment of choice for chronic myeloid Leukaemia is
(1) Hydroxyl-urea
(2) Imatinib
(3) Interferon alpha
(4) Pemetrexed

8. All of the following drugs are used orally in Psoriasis except
(1) Glucocorticoid
(2) Methotrexate
(3) Acitretin
(4) Apremilast

9. Which of the following is not a Demelanizing Agent ?
(1) Hydroquinone
(2) Monobenzone
(3) Psoralen
(4) Azelaic acid

10. Which of the Vitamin-B adversely affect the therapeutic response of Levo-dopa ?
(1) Vitamin B1
(2) Vitamin B2
(3) Vitamin B5
(4) Vitamin B6

11. Vitamin B, deficiency is seen with the use of all of the following drugs except
(1) Cycloserine
(2) Cyclosporine
(3) INH
(4) d-Penicillamine

12. Which of the following pair is incorrect match regarding monoclonal antibodies and their common use ?
(1) Abciximab — Antiplatelet
(2) Rituximab — Colon carcinoma
(3) Omalizumab — Bronchial asthma
(4) Transtuzumab — Breast carcinoma

13. An immunosuppressant is know to bind to cyclophilin and inhibit the action of calcineurin. Now patients should be monitored for which toxicity of that drug ?
(1) Pulmonary fibrosis
(2) Hypotension
(3) Hypoglycaemia
(4) Nephrotoxicity

14. Which of the following drug can result in cyanide poisoning ?
(1) Hydralazine
(2) Sodium Nitroprusside
(3) Hydroxycobalamin
(4) Sodium thiosulphate

15. Which of the following drug is not used in scabies ?
(1) Ciclopirox
(2) Ivermectin
(3) Lindane
(4) Crotamiton

16. Antihelmenthic also acting as immunomodulator is
(1) Pyrantel pamoiate
(2) Piperazine
(3) Levamisol
(4) Niclosomide

17. Most commonly used chelating agent in Wilson’s disease
(1) Deferiprone
(2) Dimercaprol
(3) Penicillamine
(4) EDTA

18. Loading dose of a drug depends upon
(1) Volume of distribution
(2) Clearance
(3) Rate of administration
(4) Half life of drug

19. ED50 of a drug is a measure of
(1) Safety
(2) Potency
(3) Efficacy
(4) Toxicity

20. As per “Drugs and Cosmetic Act” prescription drugs are included in
(1) Schedule C
(2) Schedule H
(3) Schedule P
(4) Schedule X

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21. Most drugs gain entry to cell by
(1) Passive diffusion with zero-order kinetics
(2) Passive diffusion with first-order kinetics
(3) Active transport with zero-order kinetics
(4) Active transport with first-order kinetics

22. Drugs that are highly bound to albumin :
(1) Effectively cross the BBB
(2) Are easily filtered at the glomerulus
(3) Used to have large volume of distribution
(4) Can compete with other drugs to bind with albumin

23. Which of the phase-II drug metabolism can have a genetic polymorphism ?
(1) Glucuronidation
(2) Acetylation
(3) Oxidation
(4) Glutathione conjugation

24. Pharmacokinetic parameter of morphine include Vd-400 L/70 kg CL-600 ml/min and oral bioavailability fraction (F) = 0.25. What will be the | loading, dose to achieve a steady-state level of 25 mg/l ?
(1) 20 mg
(2) 40 mg
(3) 60 mg
(4) 80 mg

25. Which type of drug will have maximum oral bioavailability ?
(1) Highly hydrophilic drugs
(2) Chemically unstable drugs
(3) Largely hydrophobic, yet soluble in aqucous solutions
(4) Drugs that are P-Glycoprotein substrates

26. An Orphan drug is
(1) Avery cheap drug
(2) A drug which has no therapeutic use
(3) A drug used to treat rare disease
(4) A drug which act on Orphanin receptor

27. Which of the following statement is false about pharmacokinetic of drug ?
(1) High plasma protein bound drug will have low volume of distribution.
(2) Microsomal enzyme are located in mitochondria of hepatic cell.
(3) Acidic drug mainly bound to albumin.
(4) Most drugs are absorbed in un-ionized form.

28. Idiosyncratic reaction of a drug is
(1) A type of hypersensitivity reaction.
(2) A type of drug antagonism.
(3) Unpredictable inherent abnormal reaction.
(4) Quantitatively exaggerated response.

29. Which of the following drugs exhibit the “therapeutic window phenomenon” ?
(1) Lisinopril
(2) Furosemide
(3) Lorazepam
(4) Imipramine

30. In an enzyme inhibition, if Umax decrease by 50% and Km remain as before. Type of Enzyme Inhibition
(1) Competitive equilibrium type
(2) Non-competitive type
(3) Competitive non-equilibrium type
(4) Uncompetitive — enzyme desolution

31. Which phase of the clinical trial is aimed to decide the maximum tolerable dose of a new drug ?
(1) Phase II Randomised control trial
(2) Phase III Randomised control trial
(3) Phase I clinical trial
(4) Case control study

32. Phase 4 (IV) of clinical trial collect information about
(1) Drug efficacy
(2) Drug potency
(3) Drug toxicity
(4) Pharmaco economics and market feasibility

33. Following drugs are used for overactive bladder, except
(1) Darifenacin
(2) Duloxetine
(3) Oxybutynin
(4) Flavoxate

34. Which of the following symptoms would you expect to see in carbonate poisoning?
(1) Urinary retention
(2) Tachycardia
(3) Constriction of pupil
(4) Dry mouth

35. Oral bioavailability is maximum out of following Beta (PB) blocker
(1) Metoprolol
(2) Atenolol
(3) Acebutolol
(4) Bisoprolol

36. Which of the following statement is correct regarding sympathetic neurotransmission ?
(1) Adrenaline is major neurotransmitter released for sympathetic nerve.
(2) Nor-adrenaline is major neurotransmitter released from Adrenal gland.
(3) Cocaine prevent reuptake of noradrenaline in presynaptic terminal.
(4) Monoamine oxidase-A (MAO-A) converts dopamine to noradrenaline

37. Following statements are correct regarding Alpha (a) blocker, except
(1) Alpha (a) blocker are used for treatment of hypotension in anaphylactic shock.
(2) Alpha (a) blocker are used for treatment of Benign Hypertrophy of Prostate (BHP).
(3) Alpha (a) blocker may cause tachycardia.
(4) Alpha (a) blocker may cause nasal stuffiness.

38. Drug which can be used to block the reflex Bradycardia caused by Alpha-1 agonist
(1) Metoprolol
(2) Atropine
(3) Mirtazepine
(4) Ephedrine

39. In bronchiolar smooth muscle, activation of muscarinic receptor will lead to
(1) Increase in IP3 and DA4.
(2) Activation of Adenyle cyclase.
(3) Decrease in cAMP.
(4) Inhibition of protein kinase C.

40. Autonomic nerve supply to Thermoregulatory sweat gland is
(1) Cholinergic nerves and muscarinic-3 receptor
(2) Adrenergic nerves and Alpha-l receptors
(3) Adrenergic nerves and Beta-2 receptor
(4) Neurohumorally-released epinephrine

41. Following statements are false, except
(1) Hemicholinium decrease/prevent the release of ACh from storage vesicles.
(2) Botulin toxin increase the Ach release
(3) Pralidoxime reactivates Acetylcholine esterase
(4) Vesamicol inhibit the uptake of choline

42. True statement about Atropine except
(1) It is the drug of choice for cycloplegia in children.
(2) It is used to treat belladonna poisoning.
(3) It can precipitate Glaucoma
(4) It is used for A-V block

43. Lid retraction is caused by
(1) Bimatoprost
(2) Latanoprost
(3) Brimonidine
(4) Apraclonidine

44. Short duration of action of Esmolol is due to
(1) Rapid redistribution
(2) Fast excretion by kidney
(3) Hydrolysis by esterase
(4) Rapid plasma protein binding

45. Correct match of drug and their mechanism of action
(1) Brimonidine – Decrease aqueous production
(2) Bimatoprost – Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
(3) Echothiophate – Increase Uveoscleral outflow
(4) Timolol – Increase trabecular outflow