Pharmacology Practice Questions

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Pharmacology Practice Questions

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Practice Questions on Pharmacology

1) Postmenopausal female developed osteoporotic vertebral fracture. Which one of the following is likely to reduce her pain of osteoporotic fracture :
A) Calcitonin
B) Zoledronic acid
C) Denosumab
D) Teriparatide

2) An alcoholic male suffering from Hepatic cirrhosis had ascites and oedema. Which one of the following would be most appropriate choice
A) Cholrthalidone
B) Spinorolactone
C) Furosemide
D) Hydrochlorthiazide

3) Which one of the following is a side effect of Amlodpine
A) Bradycardia
B) Cough
C) Ankle edema
D) QT prolongation

4) A patient on antipsychotic medication developed muscle rigidity, fever, altered mental status & stupor, unstable blood pressure and myoglobinemia. Which one of the following drugs may be helpful
A) Gabapentin
B) Amantadine
C) Bromocriptine
D) Pramipexole

5) A patient of cardiovascular disease needs a Non-Sterordal Anti inflammatory drug for some other ailment. Which one of the following appear to be least likely to be harmful
A) Ibuprofen
B) Piroxicam
C) Inodomethacin
D) Paracetamol

6) All statements are correct except
A) Inhalation of CO2 can accelerate induction and recovery of general anaesthesia
B) Inhalation of CO2 produces cerebral vasodilation
C) Inhalation of CO2 stimulates respiration
D) Intercostal muscles paralysis occurs in phase I of general anaesthesia

7) Amongst following maximum blood : Gas partition coefficient is with
A) Nitrous oxide
B) Desflurane
C) Halothane
D) Isoflurane

8) Which of the following statement regarding Tapentadol is not correct
A) It is an agonist at the mu receptor
B) It is an inhibitor of Nor-epinphrine uptake
C) Metabolised mainly by glucuronidation
D) Dose should be reduced in moderate renal impairment

9) Which of the following opioids is the best choice for treating pain associated with diabetic peripheral neuropathy
A) Morphine
B) Tapentadol
C) Codeine
D) Buprenorphine

10) Which of the following is correct regarding digoxin when used for atrial fibrillation
A) Digoxin works by blocking voltage-sensitive calcium channels
B) Digoxin is used for rhythm control in patients with atrial fibrillation
C) Digoxin increases conduction velocity through the AV node
D) Digoxin levels of 1 to 2 ng/mL are desirable in the treatment of atrial fibrillation

11) In which disease state is cilostazol contraindicated
A) Peripheral arterial diseases
B) Gout
C) Heart failure with reduced ejection fraction
D) Osteoporosis

12) Which is considered “fibrin selective” because it rapidly activates plasminogen that is bound to fibrin
A) Alteplase
B) Fondaparinux
C) Streptokinase
D) Urokinase

13) All are true statements regarding Rifabutin except :
A) It is preferred in AIDS patients taking PIs or NNRTIs
B) It is more potent inducer of CYP 450 enzymes than Rifampicin
C) It can cause skin hyperpigmentation
D) It can cause neutropenia

14) A 56 year old man presents to the emergency room with complaints of swelling, redness, and pain in his right leg. The patient is diagnosed with acute DVT and requires treatment with an anticoagulant. All of the following are approved for treatment of this patient’s DVT except
A) Rivaroxban
B) Dabigatran
C) Enoxaparin
D) Heparin

15) A 58 years old man receives intravenous alteplase treatment for acute stroke. Five minutes following completion of alteplase infusion, he develops orolingual angioedema. Which of the following drugs may have increased the risk of developing orolingual angioedema in this patient:
A) ACE inhibitor
B) GP IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist
C) Phosphodiesterase inhibitor
D) Thiazide diuretic

16) Drug that is misused in sexual assaults or so called “date-rapes”
A) Gepirone
B) Flunitrazepam
C) Midazolam
D) Zaleplon

17) A hallucinogenic drug, commonly known as Ecstasy or Molly and was popularized among those attending late-night “rave” parties
A) Bultylone
B) Mehtylene dioxypyrovalerone
C) Methylene dioxymethamphetamine
D) Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD)

18) Following statement regarding Ranolazine are true except that it
A) Inhibits the late phase of the sodium current
B) Does not prolong QT interval
C) Has antianginal as well as antiarrythmic properties
D) Reduces intracellular sodium & calcium overload

19) Following statement regarding Fondaparinux are correct except that it :
A) Is a synthetic derivative of L-arginine
B) Selectively inhibits only factor Xa
C) Is approved for prophylaxis of various thromboembolism
D) Is eliminated in the urine mainly as unchanged drug

20) The anion-exchange resin that can be used in type-2 diabetes due to the glucose-lowering effects
A) Cholestyramine
B) Colestipol
C) Colesevelam
D) None of the above

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21) “Monday morning disease” occurs in workers of chemical industries due to exposure to
A) Organophosphates
B) Pentylenetetrazole
C) Organic Nitrate
D) Methylxanthines

22) Sodium bicarbonate is not preferred as an oral antacid for long term use because
A) It is a weak antacid
B) Systemic absorption can produce transient metabolic alkalosis
C) It can increase the Flatulence
D) It can aggravate the pain of peptic ulcer

23) Following statement are true regarding Hydroxyurea except that:
A) It can reduce the frequency of painful sickle cell crises
B) It can be used to treat chronic myelogenous leukaemia
C) It can be used to treat polycythemia vera
D) It apparently decreases the foetal haemoglobin levels

24) Out of the following drugs the antimicrobial that can be given as one time dose for the treatment of urinary treat infection is:
A) Aztreonam
B) Vancomycin
C) Fosfomycin
D) Telavanacin

25) Following lipopeptide antibiotic should never be used in the treatment of pneumonia (since it is inactivated by pulmonary surfactants) :
A) Linezolid
B) Daptomycin
C) Dalfopristin
D) All of the above

26) Which of the following antibiotic combinations is inappropriate based on antagonism at the same site of action:
A) Clindamycin and erythromycin
B) Doxycycline and amoxicillin
C) Tigecyline and azithromycin
D) Ciprofloxacin and amoxicillin

27) A 30 year old pregnant female has cellulitis caused by MRSA. Which of the following antibiotics would be the most appropriate option:
A) Doxcycline
B) Clindamycin
C) Quinupristin/daltopristin
D) Tigecycline

28) Pseudotumor cerbri can occur as an adverse reaction after long term therapy with:
A) Tetracyclines
B) Clindamycin
C) Rifampicin
D) Ciprofoxacin

29) Following are possible uses of androgens except:
A) Testicular failure in children
B) Hypopituitarism
C) Hereditary angioneurotic edema
D) Carcinoma of breast in male

30) All of the following decrease therapeutic effects of levodopa except:
A) Butyrophenones
B) Phenothiazines
C) Metoclopramide
D) Pergolide

31) Which of the following phenothiazine has least anti-emetic effect:
A) Thioridazine
B) Chlorpromazine
C) Thiothixene
D) Trifluoperazine

32) Which butyrophenone is also used for producing neuroleptanalgesia:
A) Flupenthixol
B) Droperidol
C) Fentanyl
D) Ketamine

33) Which statement is false:
A) Blockade of dopaminergic system in limbic system produces antipsychotic effect of chlorpromazine
B) Blockade of dopaminergic system in basal ganglia produces extrapyamidal symptoms
C) Blockade of dopaminergic system in CTZ induces vomiting by chlorpromazine
D) Chlorpromazine increases proclactin secretion

34) Morphine reduces all the following except:
A) Follicle stimulating hormone
B) Adrenocortictropic hormone
C) Luteinizing hormone
D) Growth hormone

35) Which statement is false regarding verapamil:
A) It prolongs A-V nodal effective refractory period
B) It has negative inotropic action
C) It increases P-R interval
D) It decreases R-R interval

36) Intravenous furosemide is used for rapid control of symptoms in Acute LVF. It provides quick relief of dyspnoea by:
A) Producing bronchodilation
B) Causing rapid diuresis and reducing circulating blood volume
C) Stimulating left ventricular contractility
D) Causing venodilation

37) Therapeutic effects of warfarin appear only when
A) Synthesis of clotting factors is reduced by 5%
B) Synthesis of clotting factors is reduced by 10%
C) Synthesis of clotting factors is reduced by 20%
D) Synthesis of clotting factors is reduced by 40%

38) All of the following are plasminogen inhibitors except:
A) Epsilon Amino Caprioic Acid
B) Tranexamic acid
C) Aprotinin
D) Kallikrein

39) All of the following can produce constipation except:
A) Aluminium hydroxide gel
B) Calcium carbonate
C) Magnesium carbonate
D) Nifedipine

40) Which of the following is not a side effect of metoclopramide:
A) Constipation
B) Muscle dystonia
C) Gynaecomastia
D) Galactorrhoea

41) All of the following sulphonamides are short acting except:
A) Sulfisoxazole
B) Sulfamethizole
C) Sulfadiazine
D) Sulfadoxine

42) Which is most potent tetracycline:
A) Doxycycline
B) Minocyline
C) Demeclocyline
D) Methacycline

43) Which of the following NSAID has good tissue penetrability with concentration in synovial fluid:
A) Ketorolac
B) Diclofenac sodium
C) Sulindac
D) Piroxicam

44) QTc prolongation in ECG can be observed with all of the following except
A) Procainamide
B) Sotalol
C) Sparfloxacin
D) Verapamil

45) The Nitrate which undergoes little first pass metabolism is:
A) Isosorbide mononitrate
B) Nitroglycerine
C) Pentaerythritol tetranitrate
D) Isosorbide dinitrate

46) Which of the following is most potent local anaesthetic:
A) Dibucaine
B) Cocaine
C) Lignocaine
D) Bupivacaine

47) Narconanalysis of criminals is done by giving:
A) Thiopentone
B) Opium
C) Diazepam
D) Ketamine

48) Most potent opioid among the following is:
A) Alfentanil
B) Fentanyl
C) Sufentanil
D) Remifentanil

49) Filgrastim is used for the treatment of:
A) Neutropenia
B) Anaemia
C) Polycythemia
D) Neutrophilia

50) The following anti ulcer drug DOES NOT act by reducing the secretion of or neutralizing gastric acid
A) Megaldrate
B) Sucralfate
C) Misoprostol
D) Omeprazole