Program Management Interview Questions

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Program Management Interview Questions

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Questions on Program Management

1. It is not the example of workers’ Participation Forum:
(A) Works Committees
(B) Joint Councils
(C) Plant Councils
(D) Trade Union Councils

2. This is not a Tripartite Committee:
(A) Steering Committee on Wage
(B) Works Committees
(C) Central Boards of Workers’ Education
(D) National Productivity Council

3. Bargaining that focuses on convincing the other party that the cost of disagreeing with the proposed terms would be very high is known as:
(A) Integrative Bargaining
(B) Easy Bargaining
(C) Distributive Bargaining
(D) Tough Bargaining

4. Providing housing accommodation, amusement and sports, educational facilities for adults and children are:
(A) Extra Mural facilities
(B) Intra Mural facilities
(C) Inclusive Mural facilities
(D) Exclusive Mural facilities

5. When organizations as coalitions of competing interests, where the management’s role is to mediate amongst the different interest groups display:
(A) Marxist Approach
(B) Unitary Approach
(C) Dualistic Approach
(D) Pluralistic Approach

6. The primary method used to ensure external equity in an organization’s wage and salary system is:
(A) Wage survey
(B) Wage rate analysis
(C) Money survey
(D) Items survey

7. Nike lets consumers customize athletic shoes for $ 10 more. A shopper with two different size feet can even get a non-matching pair. This would be example of which of following?
(A) Mass Marketing
(B) Mass Customization
(C) Individualization
(D) Niche Marketing

8. The……………of the product mix refers to how closely related the various product lines are in end use, production requirements, distribution channels, or some other way.
(A) Consistency
(B) Depth
(C) Width
(D) length

9. ……………..for a product is the total volume that would be bought by a defined customer group in a defined geographical area in a defined time period in a defined marketing environment under a defined marketing program.
(A) Market share
(B) Market supply
(C) Market demand
(D) Market potential

10. One set of consumers, during a focus group session, indicated that Dell computers reminded them of a Surfer, Apple computer was equated to a mad scientists and IBM computers to scrooge from the Dicken’s tale. Which of the following qualitative research approaches matches to the approaches described above:
(A) Projective techniques
(B) Visualisation
(C) Brand personification
(D) Laddering

11. Which of the following is not a factor in the Kano’s Model?
(A) Competitive factors
(B) Excitement factors
(C) Performance factors
(D) Basic factors

12. The objective of ‘‘defensive switching’ is to:
(A) Retain the customer by encouraging him/her to buy the same brand as was bought on earlier occasion instead of switching to a different brand on this purchase occasion.
(B) Encourage store switching.
(C) Encourage consumers to buy a different brand than the one that they bought on earlier purchase occasion or had the intention of buying now.
(D) Encourage the customers to buy high margin products

13. These are a group of people in the process of diffusion who enjoy being at the leading edge of innovation and buy into new products at an early stage:
(A) Late majority
(B) Early adopters
(C) Early majority
(D) Laggards

14. Delivery services offered by restaurants and other food chains in our market on phone calls are examples of:
(A) Sales promotion
(B) Direct marketing
(C) Publicity
(D) Personal selling

15. In Consumer Buying Behaviour, initiator is:
(A) A person who first suggests the idea of buying the product or service
(B) A person who makes the actual purchase
(C) A person who first uses the product or service
(D) A person whose advice influences the decision

16. ‘‘Intel Inside’’ is a classic example of which one of the following?
(A) Bundling
(B) Ingredient co-branding
(C) Joint venture
(D) Effective packaging

17. Setting prices as low as possible typically supports which of the following marketing objectives?
(A) Survival
(B) Current profit maximization
(C) Market-share leadership
(D) Product-quality leadership

18. Selective Retention means that:
(A) People will twist information into personal meanings.
(B) People are likely to notice stimuli whose deviations are large in relation to the normal size of the stimuli.
(C) People will forget much that they learn but will tend to retain information that supports their attitudes and beliefs.
(D) People are more likely to notice stimuli that they anticipate.

19. Psychographic segmentation divides customers based on the:
(A) Actual behaviour of customers towards services
(B) Difference in demographic factors
(C) Location
(D) Lifestyle and personality

20. …………….means inviting the Internet community to help create content or software, often with prize money or a moment of glory involved.
(A) Stage-gating
(B) Co-creation
(C) Micro stocking
(D) Crowd sourcing

Retail Management Project Coordinator
Facilities Management Program Management
Financial Management Managers
Incident Management Product Management
Stakeholder Management Team Leader
Marketing Management Managerial Round
People Management Project Management
Operation Management Managers
Sales Management

21. ………….is a strategy that emphasises making an organization more competitive by targeting a specific regional market, product line or buyer group.
(A) Focus strategy
(B) Cost leadership
(C) Differentiation strategy
(D) Portfolio strategy

22. Responding to competitive pressure, innovator opens fancier stores, expands product lines and raises both prices and profits. This is known as:
(A) Innovation
(B) Trading up
(C) Vulnerability
(D) Trading down

23. State which one of the following statements is wrong?
(A) Dividend decisions relate to appropriation of profit
(B) Finance decisions relate to Procurement of funds
(C) Investment decisions relate to selection of viable and profitable investment alternatives and allocation of funds.
(D) Strategic Financial Management focus on long range financial planning to achieve corporate objectives.

24. In CAPM, the prices of securities are determined by:
(A) Risk Premium Proportional to Unsystematic Risk
(B) Excess Return
(C) Systematic Risk
(D) Risk Premium Proportional to Systematic Risk

25. The financial risk of a concern is not determined by:
(A) Capital Gearing
(B) Operating Leverage
(C) Cost of Capital
(D) Unrestrictive Covenants of Debt Finance

26. Which one of the factors is not relevant determinant factor in capital structure?
(A) Flotation Costs
(B) Cost of Capital
(C) Market Conditions
(D) Market Share

27. A Firm’s Credit Policy will be considered optimum at the point where:
(A) Incremental Rate of Return equals the Cost of Funds
(B) Incremental Rate of Return is more than the Cost of Funds
(C) Incremental Rate of Return is less than the Cost of Funds
(D) Rate of Return is less than the Cost of Funds

28. Derivatives include:
(A) Options
(B) Options and Futures
(C) Swaps and Options
(D) Options, Forward Contracts, Future Contracts and Swaps

29. Foreign Currency Risk Exposure consists:
(A) Transaction Risk
(B) Translation Risk
(C) Economic Risk
(D) Transaction Risk, Translation Risk and Economic Risk

30. Which one of the following does not constitute merger benefits?
(A) Economies of Scale
(B) Increased Efficiency
(C) Tax Shields or Shared Resources
(D) Capital Rationing

31. The smallest price increment a currency can make against another currency in foreign exchange trading is called as:
(A) Lot
(B) Pip
(C) Quote
(D) Forex

32. ‘Forward Market Contracts’ and ‘Futures and Options’ are:
(A) tools to measure risk
(B) tools to deal with the foreign exchange risk
(C) tools to measure exchange rate
(D) tools to take decisions

33. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
(A) When a Company Issues ‘Stock Dividends’ it effects Debt Equity Ratio.
(B) When a Company Issues ‘Bonus Shares’ it effects Debt Equity Ratio.
(C) When a Company Issues ‘Stock Dividends’ it does not effect Debt Equity Ratio.
(D) When a Company Issues ‘Stock Dividends’ it does not effect ‘Cash Dividends’.

34. Which one of the following methods is consistent with wealth maximisation objective?
(A) IRR and ARR
(B) IRR and NPV
(C) IRR and Pay Back Period
(D) ARR and Pay Back Period

35. Price of an option is not determined by:
(A) Market Index
(B) Future Price and Strike Price
(C) Interest Rates
(D) Time of Option

36. Which one of the following is not part of calculation of EOQ?
(A) Annual Requirement (A)
(B) Per Order Cost (O)
(C) Carrying Cost Per Unit (C)
(D) Number of Orders (N)

37. A merger which takes place upon the combination of two companies operating in the same industry but at different stages of production or distribution system is called as …………….merger.
(A) Horizontal
(B) Vertical
(C) Reverse
(D) Conglomerate

38. Permission to move the goods physically inside to port required:
(A) Shipping Bill
(B) Export Licence
(C) GR-I Form
(D) Carting Order

39. One of the following is not the Marine Cargo Insurance policy:
(A) Open Cover
(B) Specific Voyage
(C) Annual Turnover Policy
(D) Inland Insure Policy

40. The exchange rate quotation system when quoted as ` 45/US $, then it is:
(A) Indirect quote
(B) Direct quote
(C) Spread quote
(D) Bid quote

41. Improvising the acquired technologies for one’s home need, when capital is limited is which phase of technology cycle:
(A) Awareness phase
(B) Adaptation phase
(C) Advancement phase
(D) Acquisition phase

42. Real operating exposure not includes:
(A) Exchange rate adjusted for inflation
(B) Operating cash flow
(C) Exposure emerge on accounts of export and import of commodities
(D) Companies future revenue and cost stream

43. United Kingdom has move out from which of the following organisation recently?
(A) European Union (EU)

44. A regional trading block is known as Economic Community when member countries:
(A) Allow only factor of production
(B) Implement identical monetary policies only
(C) Eliminate all trade barriers among themselves
(D) Remove the tariff restriction only

45. Which framework enables an international financial manager to make decision on long-term investment?
(A) Capital Budgeting
(B) Investment Decision
(C) Cross-border mergers
(D) Financing decision framework

46. Trade Integration among the member countries not lead to:
(A) Trade creation and diversion
(B) Price and competition
(C) Static effects
(D) Economies of scale

47. Which is not a method for an exporter to get a contract?
(A) Import licence
(B) Pro forma Invoice
(C) Purchase Order
(D) Sales Contract

48. Mode-1 of General Agreement on Trade in Services comprises of:
(A) Consumption Abroad
(B) Commercial Presence
(C) Cross-border Trade
(D) Temporary movement of natural person

49. Analyses of railroad investments, which added analytical information about value of securities:
(A) Moody’s Investor Service
(B) Standard & Poor’s
(C) Fitch

50. Which among the following is not the function of WTO?
(A) Acting as a forum for multilateral trade negotiation
(B) Seeking to resolve trade negotiation
(C) Overseeing national trade policies
(D) Cooperating with other International Institution involve in local economic policy making