Radiodiagnosis Questions and Answers

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Radiodiagnosis Questions and Answers

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Questions and Answers on Radiodiagnosis

1. Which of the following statements is correct about Subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) ?
(1) Anormal CT within 24 h of onset of symptoms excludes SAH.
(2) The most common etiology is trauma.
(3) Focal interhemispheric blood suggests an anterior communicating artery aneurysm rupture.
(4) Blood in the 4h ventricles is a typical feature of posterior communicating artery aneurysm rupture.

2. Concerning the differentiation between optic nerve glioma and optic nerve sheath meningioma, which is correct ?
(1) A widened optic canal is seen more commonly in optic nerve glioma.
(2) Optic nerve glioma typically shows the ‘tram-track’ sign on enhancement.
(3) Calcification is more commonly seen with optic nerve glioma.
(4) Optic nerve glioma may cause orbital hyperostosis.

3. Which of the following statement is incorrect about Juvenile angiofibromas ?
(1) Biopsy is contraindicated.
(2) Widening of the pterygopalatine fossa is only seen in advanced cases.
(3) Is the commonest benign nasopharyngeal tumour.
(4) Invasion of the sphenoid sinus occurs in upto two thirds of cases.

4. Which of the following is true regarding round pneumonia ?
(1) It occurs most commonly in the second and third decades of life.
(2) It is most commonly associated with Klebsiella infection.
(3) It frequently progresses to cavitation.
(4) It is a feature of Q-fever infection.

5. Which of the following is true regarding coarctation of the aorta ?
(1) Adult coarctation is commonly associated with cardiac anomalies.
(2) The ductus arteriosus is usually closed in adult type coarctation.
(3) A short segment of narrowing of the ascending aorta is seen in infantile coarctation.
(4) It is a rare cause of infantile heart failure.

6. Regarding cholangiocarcinoma, which of the following is true ?
(1) The majority are squamous cell carcinomas.
(2) It typically shows delayed enhancement on CT.
(3) Tumours are low signal relative to liver on T2-weighted MRI.
(4) Duodenal obstruction is an early feature.

7. Medullary nephrocalcinosis occurs in which of the following conditions ?
(1) Renal tubular acidosis
(2) Primary hyperoxaluria
(3) Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
(4) All of the above

8. Regarding renal calculi, which of the following is not true ?
(1) More than 50% of staghorn calculi contain magnesium ammonium phosphate (struvite).
(2) Uric acid calculi are nonopaque.
(3) Xanthine stones are not visible on CT.
(4) Crohn’s disease predisposes to the formation of oxalate stones.

9. Regarding trauma to the bladder, which of the following is false ?
(1) Approximately 10% of patients with a pelvic fracture have associated bladder injury.
(2) About 50% of bladder ruptures are intraperitoneal.
(3) Extraperitoneal ruptures are most common around the base of the bladder.
(4) About 10% of bladder ruptures are only evident on post-voiding cystography films.

10. Cone-shaped epiphyses are seen in all of the following conditions, except
(1) Ellis Van Creveld syndrome
(2) Hypothyroidism
(3) Multiple epiphyseal dysplasia
(4) Achondroplasia

11. Which of the following is true regarding pigmented villonodular synovitis ?
(1) It is five times more common in females.
(2) Soft tissue calcification is common.
(3) Painful periarticular osteoporosis is an early feature.
(4) It causes well-defined bony erosions on both sides of an affected joint.

12. Which of the following ultra sonographic appearances of axillary lymph nodes are reportedly associated with malignant infiltration ?
(1) Rounded appearance of the lymph node
(2) An increase in vascular resistive index and pulsatility index
(3) Peripheral vascular flow pattern on colour or power Doppler imaging
(4) All of the above

13. Which of the following is not a cause of posterior acoustic shadowing on breast ultrasonography ?
(1) Invasive ductal carcinoma
(2) Ruptured silicone breast implant
(3) Surgical scar
(4) Simple cyst

14. A lesion is noted in the liver on CT and ultrasound. It is inferior, anterior, and to the left of the right hepatic vein, but to the right of the middle hepatic vein. It is inferior of the confluence of the right and left portal veins. According to the Couinaud system, what segment of the liver is the lesion in
(1) Segment 4b
(2) Segments
(3) Segment 6
(4) Segment 8

15. Regarding foetal anomalies, which one of the following is false ?
(1) The triple screen for Down’s syndrome refers to the combination of maternal alpha fetoprotein, oestriol and HCG levels.
(2) Short femur and humerus lengths are indicators of Down’s syndrome.
(3) Endocardial cushion defects are strongly associated with Down’s syndrome.
(4) Separation of the big toe from the remaining toes is a strong sign of Down’s syndrome.

16. Which one of the following signs may be useful to help differentiate between a phlebolith and ureteric calculi ?
(1) Lobster claw sign
(2) Soft-tissue rim sign
(3) Signet ring sign
(4) Nubbin sign

17. Which of the following is not related to the risk of rupture of saccular intracranial aneurysms ?
(1) Size of the aneurysm
(2) Configuration of the aneurysm
(3) Location of the aneurysm
(4) Age of the patient

18. If a patient has a duplicated IVC, the ideal location of an IVC filter would be
(1) Infrarenal right IVC
(2) Suprarenal IVC
(3) Infrarenal left IVC
(4) Filter is contraindicated and thrombolysis should be performed

19. If a radiologist increases the distance between fluoroscopy tube and patient from 1 to 2 m, the radiation dose to patient would become : :
(1) ½
(2) 1/3
(3) ¼
(4) 1/8

20. Regarding the use of compression in mammography, compression increases :
(1) Tube loading
(2) X-ray penetration
(3) Average glandular close
(4) Image magnification

Practice Set MCQs
Quiz Questions and Answers

21. A 37 year old male undergoes an intravenous urogram and the right ureter is deviated medially in the lumbar region. Which one of the following could explain this finding ?
(1) Psoas muscle hypertrophy
(2) Para-aortic lymphadenopathy
(3) Retrocaval ureter
(4) Abdominal aortic aneurysm

22. A 29 year old woman has an ultrasound scan for right upper quadrant pain and jaundice which reveals biliary ductal dilatation to the level of the common hepatic duct adjacent to a stone in the gallbladder neck. The gallbladder is thick-walled and tender. MRCP confirms these findings and excludes common duct stones. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis ?
(1) Primary sclerosing cholangitis
(2) Mirizzi syndrome
(3) Caroli’s disease
(4) Acute cholecystitis

23. Which is the first diagnostic study of choice for evaluating upper Gl bleeding for varices ?
(1) Esophagoduodenoscopy (EGD)
(2) Esophagography
(3) Contrast enhanced CT
(4) Nuclear medicine tagged red blood cell scan

24. Regarding the portal venous system, which of the following facts is false?
(1) Direct portography may be achieved by a trans-jugular trans hepatic approach.
(2) The splenic and superior mesenteric vein join to form the main portal vein.
(3) The extra hepatic portal vein lies anterior to the common bile duct.
(4) The umbilical (distal) portion of the left portal vein supplies the lateral segments 2 and 3 and the inferior portion of segment 4.

25. A 25-year-old male driver was admitted to the Accident & Emergency Department after a road traffic accident. Plain radiography shows a fractured pelvis and the patient is unable to pass urine. The registrar notes blood at the urethral meatus. What is the appropriate management for this condition ?
(1) Foley’s catheter insertion to drain urine
(2) Retrograde urethrogram to exclude urethral injury
(3) Micturating cystourethrogram
(4) Antegrade urethrography

26. All the following are radiological features of Crohn’s disease on small bowel meal except :
(1) Granular mucosa
(2) Aphthoid ulcers
(3) String sign of Kantor
(4) Cobblestone appearance

27. The imaging modality of choice in suspected brain metastases is :
(1) Contrast-enhanced CT
(2) Non-contrast CT
(3) Diffusion-weighted MR
(4) Contrast-enhanced MR

28. A 32 year old footballer sustains an avulsion injury to the anterior superior iliac spine during training. Which of the following muscles is likely to be affected ?
(1) Sartorius
(2) Gracilis
(3) Iliopsoas
(4) Rectus femoris

29. A ten-year-old girl falls and injures her left elbow. No bony injury is demonstrated on plain radiographs. On interpretation of the plain radiographs, which one of the following ossification centres is the least likely to be present ?
(1) Trochlea
(2) Medial epicondyle
(3) Lateral epicondyle
(4) Olecranon

30. A 56-year-old woman who has had chronic wrist pain since a fall several months previously is referred for an MR arthrogram of her wrist with a suspected triangular fibrocartilage complex (TFCC) tear. Which of the following would be the best sequence for visualizing a TFCC tear ?
(1) Tl axial
(2) T2 coronal
(3) Gradient echo sagittal
(4) T2 sagittal

31. Embryonic tissues or structures involved with uterine development include :
(1) Mesoderm
(2) Urogenital sinus
(3) Mesonephric ducts
(4) Endoderm

32. The scrotum of the male develops from :
(1) endoderm of urogenital sinus
(2) urethral groove
(3) urogenital folds
(4) genital or labioscrotal swellings

33. A. true hermaphrodite can be distinguished from a pseudohermaphrodite by :
(1) chromosome complement
(2) behavior
(3) appearance of external genitalia
(4) presence of both testicular and ovarian tissue

34. The structures of the female pelvis representing the homologue of the gubernaculum testis are : :
(1) cardinal ligament of the uterus
(2) round ligament of the uterus
(3) suspensory ligament of the ovary
(4) medial umbilical ligament

35. The structures listed below are of mesodermal origin EXCEPT :
(1) cortex of the kidney
(2) renal pelvis
(3) ureter
(4) urethra

36. The embryonic origin(s) of the shaft of the penis is/are :
(1) urethral folds
(2) genital tubercle
(3) genital swellings
(4) sinovaginal bulbs

37. Of the following, the item most closely associated with the pons is :
(1) Diencephalon
(2) Mesencephalon
(3) Metencephalon
(4) myelencephalon

38. Of the following, the one most closely associated with the 3rd ventricle is :
(1) Telencephalon
(2) Diencephalon
(3) Mesencephalon
(4) myelencephalon

39. False about cerebrospinal fluid :
(1) It is produced in choroid plexuses
(2) Circulates in the ventricular system of the brain and in the subarachnoid spaces
(3) Re-enters the arterial blood at the arachnoid granulations
(4) Blockage of its circulation can lead to internal or external hydrocephalus

40. A 28 year-old G2P1 female patient comes in for a checkup for the first time. Sonographic dating puts her roughly around 30 weeks. She states she hasn’t been taking any prenatal vitamins or any supplements. On ultrasonography, it has also been identified that the fetus has anencephaly. What is the specific abnormality causing this condition ?
(1) defective neural crest migration
(2) neural tube defect
(3) myogenic cell migration defect
(4) defective division of somites

41. Which of the following is an electromagnetic radiation?
(1) Radio waves
(2) X-rays
(3) Visible Light
(4) All of the above

42. Which of the following statements is true about the linear attenuation coefficient(p) ?
(1) It depends on the energy of the individual photons but independent of the density of the material
(2) It depends on the atomic number but independent of the energy of the individual photons
(3) It does not depend on the density and the physical thickness of the material
(4) It depends on the density of the material and the energy of the individual photons

43. The unit of Absorbed dose is
(1) Sievert
(2) Gray
(3) Roentgen
(4) Joule

44. According to ICRP, the recommended annual dose limit for the radiation worker is
(1) 50 mSv/year, averaged over defined periods of 5 years
(2) 100 mSv/year
(3) 20 mSv/year, averaged over defined periods of 5 years
(4) 10 mSv/year, averaged over defined periods of 5 years

45. According to ICRP, the current recommendation on the annual dose limit for the lens of the eye for the radiation worker is
(1) 10 mSv
(2) 20mSv
(3) 30 mSv
(4) 500 mSv