Radiodiagnosis Quiz

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Radiodiagnosis Quiz

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Quiz on Radiodiagnosis

1. A 35-year-old man presents with cough. Chest radiograph shows a low volume right lung and a gently curving tubular shadow coursing from the lower part of right inferior pulmonary artery towards the right costovertebral angle. The shadow widens as it descends towards the diaphragm. What is the most likely diagnosis ?
(1) Pulmonary sequestration
(2) Congenital venolobar Syndrome
(3) Wandering vein
(4) Swyer-James syndrome

2. In a case of anaphylaxis, the proper dose of adrenaline injection is
(1) 1mL of 1 -1000 adrenaline IV
(2) 0.5 mL of 1 -1000 adrenaline IM
(3) 1mL of 1 -10,000 adrenaline IV
(4) 0.5 mL of 1: 10,000 adrenaline IM

3. According to ICRP, the recommended annual dose limit for the radiation worker is
(1) 50 mSv/year, averaged over defined periods of 5 years
(2) 20 mSv/year, averaged over defined periods of 5 years
(3) 100 mSv/year
(4) 10 mSv/year, averaged over defined periods of 5 years

4. A 14-year-old, short girl presents with back pain. Radiographs of the lumbar spine show reducing interpedicular distance when progressing down the lumbar spine. There is exaggerated jumbar lordosis and marked scalloping of the posterior vertebral bodies. The most likely diagnosis is
(1) Achondroplasia
(2) Thanatophoric dysplasia
(3) Marfan syndrome
(4) Hurley syndrome

5. A 35-year-old man presents with headache and ataxia. CT of the brain shows a 6 cm cystic lesion in the right cerebellar hemisphere with a small enhancing nodule at the margin of the cyst. The most likely diagnosis is
(1) Necrotic metastasis
(2) Haemangioblastoma
(3) Juvenile pilocytic astrocytoma
(4) Cysticercosis

6. A 25-year-old man presents to emergency after trauma with unilateral proptosis, chemosis, reduced visual acuity and a bruit over his right orbit. Gadolinium-enhanced MRI of the orbits shows abnormal contrast enhancement of the right periorbital soft tissues and extraocular muscles. The superior ophthalmic vein is also dilated. What is the most likely diagnosis ?
(1) Carotid-cavernous fistula
(2) Graves’ disease
(3) Orbital pseudotumour
(4) Cavernous haemangioma orbit

7. Most common artery affected by fibromuscular dysplasia (FMD) is
(1) Internal carotid artery
(2) Renal artery
(3) Subclavian artery
(4) Common femoral artery

8. Which of the following is not a HRCT feature of Nonspecific Interstitial Pneumonia (NSIP) ?
(1) Basal and peripheral predominance of ground-glass opacity and reticulation
(2) Extensive Honey combing
(3) Relative subpleural sparing in the dorsal regions of the lower lobes
(4) Mild fibrosis, traction bronchiectasis and interlobular interstitial thickening

9. A 65-year-old man with history of recent surgery presents to the Emergency Department complaining of shortness of breath, pleuritic chest pain and haemoptysis. D-dimer levels were measured and found to be significantly elevate. A CXR is performed as part of the initial set of investigations. Which one of the following is the most likely CXR finding ?
(1) A normal chest radiograph
(2) Localised peripheral oligaemia
(3) Peripheral airspace opacification
(4) Pleural effusion

10. A chest X-ray of a patient demonstrates a solitary cystic structure within the left lower lobe, measuring approximately 6 cm in diameter. The peripheral aspect of the cystic structure lies in contact with the chest wall and appears slightly flattened. Within this structure there appears to be a floating membrane. What is the most likely diagnosis ?
(1) Aspergillosis
(2) Hydatid disease
(3) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
(4) Tuberculosis

11. Superior pancreaticoduodenal artery is a branch of
(1) gastroduodenal artery
(2) celiac artery
(3) superior mesenteric artery
(4) inferior mesenteric artery

12. Diffuse abnormal low SI in liver and spleen in MRI is suggestive of
(1) Haemochromatosis
(2) Wilson’s disease
(3) Addison’s disease
(4) Metastases

13. Portal vein gas may be seen in all except
(1) necrotizing enterocolitis
(2) gastric emphysema
(3) post sphincterotomy
(4) volvulus

14. Central stellate fibrovascular scar is classical for
(1) Inflammatory adenoma
(2) FNH
(3) Hemangioma
(4) HCC

15. Which subtype of hepatic adenoma has the highest chance of malignancy ?
(1) Beta-catenin mutated
(2) HNF-1-alpha
(3) Inflammatory
(4) Telengiectatic

16. Cirrhosis typically affects which segment of liver
(1) medial segment of left lobe
(2) lateral segment of left lobe
(3) all the segments
(4) posterior segment of right lobe

17. All are true regarding Fibrolamellar carcinoma except
(1) occurs in 5-35-year-age-group
(2) contains a central scar
(3) calcification
(4) hyperintense scar on T2W MR

18. All are true regarding Budd-Chiari syndrome except
(1) obstruction of hepatic veins
(2) atrophy of caudate lobe
(3) hypertrophy of caudate lobe
(4) obstruction of IVC

19. Normal portal pressure is
(1) 8-12 mm Hg
(2) 0-4 mm Hg
(3) 4-8 mm Hg
(4) 10-12 mm Hg

20. All are pancreatic manifestations of cystic fibrosis except
(1) fatty replacement
(2) calcification
(3) pancreatic cysts
(4) ductal obstruction

Practice Set MCQs
Quiz Questions and Answers

21. The commonest cystic lesion in pancreas is
(1) mucinous cyst
(2) pseudocyst
(3) serous cyst
(4) simple cyst

22. ‘Moth-eaten’ nephrogram is seen in
(1) Renal vein thrombosis
(2) Arteriovenous malformation
(3) Polyarteritis nodosa
(4) Fibromuscular dysplasia

23. Subcapsular renal hematoma can result in all except
(1) non-function
(2) hypertension
(3) Page kidney
(4) macroscopic hematuria

24. All are major factors of contrast induced nephropathy except
(1) impaired renal function
(2) age over 70
(3) dehydration
(4) large dose of contrast media

25. Contrast induced nephropathy is defined as
(1) rise of serum creatinine by more than 20%
(2) rise of serum creatinine by more than 25%
(3) rise of serum creatinine by more than 30%
(4) rise of serum creatinine by more than 35%

26. Measures to avoid Contrast induced nephropathy
(1) use low osmolality contrast media
(2) use minimum dose
(3) adequate hydration
(4) All of the above

27. Idiosyncratic anaphylactoid contrast reactions are due to all except
(1) inhibition of cholinesterase
(2) release of histamine
(3) erythrocyte damage
(4) anxiety

28. Example of isotonic contrast media
(1) Lohexol
(2) Loversol
(3) Lodixanol
(4) lothalamte

29. The osmolality of isotonic contrast media is
(1) 70
(2) 300
(3) 150
(4) 250

30. Severe adverse reaction to contrast media is seen in
(1) Thyrotoxic goitrous patients
(2) Asthmatics
(3) Renal patients
(4) All of the above

31. Principles of Radiation Protection
(1) Justification
(2) Optimization
(3) Limitation
(4) All of the above

32. All are causes of unilateral elevation of diaphragm except
(1) Scoliosis
(2) Pulmonary hypoplasia
(3) Obesity
(4) Phrenic nerve palsy

33. Collar sign in CT is seen in
(1) splenic rupture
(2) liver rupture
(3) common bile duct rupture
(4) diaphragmatic rupture

34. Associations of thymoma include all except
(1) Myasthenia gravis
(2) Hypergammaglobuliaemia
(3) Hypogammaglobulinaemia
(4) Red cell aplasia

35. All are foregut duplication cysts except
(1) bronchogenic cyst
(2) enteric cyst
(3) neurenteric cyst
(4) thymic cyst

36. Which one of his drug treatments is the most likely to have caused the pleural effusions ?
(1) Amoxyeillin
(2) Bleomycin
(3) Frusemide
(4) Propranolol

37. Which radiological finding is most likely to suggest a diagnosis of pneumonia due to Klebsiella pneumoniae rather than Legionella pneumophildi ?
(1) Bulging fissures
(2) Mediastinal lymphadenopathy
(3) Pleural effusion
(4) Pneumothorax

38. Which one of the following is not a cause of unilateral hypertranslucent hemithorax ?
(1) MacLeod’s syndrome
(2) Poland’s syndrome
(3) Poliomyelitis
(4) Pulmonary agenesis and hypoplasia

39. A 15-year-old girl had meconium ileus at birth and has subsequently suffered with recurrent chest infections, poor weight gain, loose malodorous stools and multiple gallstones. Which of the following findings is most likely to be present on the CXR ?
(1) Bronchiectasis with a predominant upper lobe distribution.
(2) Ground glass opacity
(3) Pleural effusion
(4) Reduced lung volumes

40. A chest x-ray of 50-year male with shortness of breath shows that the right atrial border is a little indistinct. On the lateral view there is a triangular density with its apex directed towards the lung hilum. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis ?
(1) Left upper lobe collapse
(2) Right middle lobe collapse
(3) Right lower lobe collapse
(4) Right upper lobe collapse

41. CT scan in a 55-year-old female patient with Cushing’s syndrome reveals a calcified polypoidal tumour with intense enhancement lying external to the left main bronchus, with a smaller intraluminal component causing partial left lower lobe obstruction. What is the most likely diagnosis ?
(1) Bronchial carcinoid
(2) Bronchial chondroma
(3) Bronchial haemangioma
(4) Bronchial hamartoma

42. Chest x-ray of 70-year-old man with history of cough and shortness of breath, reveal multiple discrete, spherical and well-defined pulmonary nodules with a peripheral distribution. Some calcification is noted within some of these nodules but cavitation is not evident. What is the most likely primary tumour ?
(1) Adenocarcinoma of the colon
(2) Anaplastic thyroid carcinoma
(3) Chondrosarcoma of the femur
(4) Invasive ductal carcinoma of the breast

43. On Chest x-ray of 58-year-old man, there are bilateral, peripheral reticular opacities seen at the lung bases. On HRCT chest, there is a subpleural basal reticular pattern with areas of honeycomb change seen. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis ?
(1) Cryptogenic Organising Pneumonia (COP)
(2) Desquamative Interstitial Pneumonia (DIP)
(3) Nonspecific Interstitial Pneumonia (NSIP)
(4) Usual Interstitial Pneumonia (UIP)

44. Which of the following HRCT finding is more likely to suggest a diagnosis of NSIP rather than UIP ?
(1) Honeycombing
(2) Mediastinal lymphadenopathy
(3) Prominent ground glass attenuation
(4) Upper lobe predominance

45. Case of sarcoidosis on chest x-ray demonstrates bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy with bilateral well-defined parenchymal nodules. The diagnosis is most likely to be ?
(1) Stage 1 Sarcoidosis
(2) Stage 2 Sarcoidosis
(3) Stage 3 Sarcoidosis
(4) Stage 4 Sarcoidosis