Sample Question Papers for MBBS Students Jobs and Interviews

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Sample Question Papers for MBBS Students

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MBBS Students Sample Question Papers

1. True and false broad ligament fibroids differentiated by anatomic position of
A) Ureter
B) Internal iliac vein
C) External iliac vein
D) Descending cervical artery –

2. Pap smear is useful in diagnosis of all expect
A) Gonorrhoea
B) T.vaginalis
D) Inflammatory changes

3. A 16 year old girl presents with 6*6 cm right ovarian mass with absent AFP, negative CA125, and increased alkaline phosphatase, diagnosis is
A) Dysgerminoma
B) Mucinous cystadeno CA
C) Endodermal sinus tumor
D) Teratoma

4. Endometrial CA involving > 50% of myometrium with vaginal metastasis. No pelvic or para aortic nodes involved with positive peritoneal cytology. Staging is –
A) Illa
B) Illb
C) Illc
D) IVa

5. A 35 year old mother of 2 children, is suffering from amenorrhoea for her last 10 months. She has a history of failure of lactation following second delivery but remained asymptomatic thereafter. Skull x-ray shows empty sella syndrome ,diagnosis is
A) Menopause
B) Pituitary tumor
C) Sheehans syndrome
D) Breast fibroadenoma

6. In post menopausal women, HRT is indicated for all except —
A) Vaginal dryness
B) Hot flushes
C) Coronary artery disease
D) Osteoporosis

7. Which of the following isn’t included in Amsel’s criteria-
A) Characteristic homogenous greyish white discharge
B) Positive whiff test
C) Vaginal fluid ph <4.7
D) Clue cells

8. A 25 year old female has a 2 cm soft non tender swelling in the vulva , just outside the vaginal introitus. While walking she has discomfort. The treatment of choice —
A) Antibiotics
B) Incision and drainage
C) Marsupialisation
D) Surgical excision

9. A 28 yr old nulliparous woman with 3rd degree uterine prolapse and cervical elongation with good abdominal wall tone is treated with —
A) Le Fort’s colpodeisis
B) Fothergill’s repair
C) Cervicopexy
D) Hysterectomy

10. Bonney’s test is used to demonstrate –
A) Stress urinary incontinence
B) Sensory urge incontinence
C) Motor urge incontinence
D) All of the above

11. Modes of intervention in primary prevention:
A) Specific protection
B) Early diagnosis
C) Rehabilitation
D) All of the above

12. Measures of central tendency include:
A) Mean, Mode, Range
B) Median, Mode, Variation
C) Mean, Mode, Median
D) Mean, Range, Variation

13. Aedes aegypti is an important vector of:
A) Malaria
B) Filariasis
C) Dengue
D) Japanese encephalitis

14. Ability of a test to identify correctly those who do not have the disease is:
A) Sensitivity
B) Specificity
C) Predictive value
D) None of the above

15. First case of a communicable disease introduced into the population unit being studied is:
A) Index Case
B) Primary Case
C) Secondary Case
D) Suspect Case

16. The continuous scrutiny of the factors that determine the occurrence and distribution of disease and other condition of ill health is:
A) Epidemiology
B) Monitoring
C) Evaluation
D) Surveillance

17. Case fatality rate may be used as an index of:
A) Virulence
B) Communicability
C) Severity
D) None of the above

18. Prevalence of low birth weight (<2.5 kg) is:
A) Morbidity indicator
B) Socio economic indicator
C) Health care delivery indicator
D) Nutritional indicator

19. Confirmatory evidence of recent faecal pollution of water is:
A) E. coli
B) Clperfringes
C) Faecal streptococci
D) Klebsiella aerogenes

20. When the disease agent undergoes cyclical change but does not multiply in the body of the arthropod:
A) Cyclo-propagative
B) Cyclo-development
C) Propagative
D) Cyclical transmission

Practice Set for Medical Students

21. Extrinsic incubation period in malaria is:
A) 5-10 days
B) 10-14 days
C) 10-20 days
D) 14-20 days

22. PQLI includes:
A) MMR, life expectancy at 1 year and case fatality rate
B) IMR, life expectancy at 1 year and literacy
C) MMR, literacy and socio economic class
D) IMR, life expectancy at birth and knowledge

23. Triage should be carried out at the site of disaster to:
A) First come first treated
B) Identify the victim
C) Bed availability at the hospital
D) Severity of their injuries

24. The following is a benefit to the employees under ESI act is:
A) Sickness expenses
B) Mortalitybenefit
C) Maternity benefit
D) Employment benefit

25. Population based registries is a registration for:
A) Diabetes
B) Cardiovascular disease
C) Non communicable disease
D) Cancer

26. Multi-drug theory for leprosy includes the following except:
A) Rifampicin
C) Clofazimine
D) Dapsone

27. Estimation of prevalence of infection of tuberculosis in a population is done by:
B) Montoux text
C) Tuberculin test
D) Sputum microscopy

28. Fast breathing in management of pneumonia in a child aged 2 months upto 12 months:
A) 30 breaths per minute or more
B) 40 breaths per minute or more
C) 50 breaths per minute or more
D) 60 breaths per minute or more

29. Which of the following vaccine is not a live vaccine:
A) Rota virus vaccine
B) Hepatitis B vaccine
D) Measles vaccine

30. Iodized salt at the consumer level should be:
A) 20 ppm
B) 15 ppm
C) 10 ppm
D) 05 ppm

31. Epidemiological triad includes the following:
A) Environment, man, animal
B) Host, agent, arthropod
C) Nature, host, agent
D) Agent, host, environment

32. Secular trend is a type of:
A) Descriptive Epidemiology
B) Analytical Epidemiology
C) Experimental Studies
D) None of the above.

33. A disease that is transmitted through contact
A) Communicable Disease
B) Infectious Disease
C) Contagious Disease
D) All of the above

34. Prevention of Dehydration in Diarrhoea in children is done by
A) ORS alone
B) ORS + continued feeding
C) Medication
D) Restriction of food

35. Isolation is required in cases of Diptheria
A) Agree
B) Disagree
C) Cannot say
D) Do not know

36. Serious side effect of Measles Vaccine
B) Fever
C) Rash
D) Convulsion

37. All cold chain equipments are available at PHC except
A) Vaccine Carrier
B) Cold Boxes
D) Walk in Cooler

38. Vaccines are normally stored in temperature
A) 2°c — 8°c
B) — 20 °c
C) 0 – 2 °c
D) None of the above

39. Breast feeding in HIV infected mother
A) Contra indicated
B) informed Choice
C) Strongly Indicated
D) All of the above

40. Hepatitis B infection is a
A) Blood Borne Infection
B) Food Borne Infection
C) Water Borne Infection
D) Arthropod Borne Infection

41. Hepatitis A infection is a
A) Water Borne Infection
B) Blood Borne Infection
C) Arthropod Borne Infection
D) All of the above

42. Anti – Rabies vaccine is indicated in
A) Bites by wild animal
B) Bites by unknown/ Untraceable animal
C) Bites by Rabid animal
D) All Bites

43. Dog Bites should be treated by
A) Vaccination + Local Cleansing
B) Only local cleansing with soap
C) Only observing the Dog for 10 days
D) Only Vaccination

44. Diseases transmitted by sexual route are all except
A) Hepatitis B
B) Hepatitis A
D) Malaria

45. Population covered by a PHC is
A) 5000
B) 10,000
C) 20,000
D) 50,000

46. Incubation period for Staphylococcal food poisoning is
A) 7 — 10 hours
B) 12 — 36 hours
C) 1 — 6 hours
D) > 6 hours

47. Components of DOTS is
A) Accountability
B) Economy
C) Surveillance
D) All of the above

48. Field level worker are all except
C) Village Health Guide
D) C.D.P.O

49. Requirement of protein for adult is
A) 1 gm per kg body weight
B) 69 gm per adult
C) 2 – 3 gm per adult
D) None of the above

50. Contact period for Chlorination water is
A) 3 hours
B) 3 – 4 hours
C) 1 hour
D) 10 mins