Urology Interview Question Papers

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Interview Question Papers on Urology

1. Before starting brain death examination following are prerequisite, EXCEPT –
(1) There should be catastrophic evidence of brain injury
(2) Core body temperature < 32°C
(3) Patient should not have history of alcohol intoxication in recent event
(4) Patient should not have neurological illness like locked-in syndrome, akinetic mutism

2. In a patient of Anuria or Oliguria post-transplant from live donor, true statement is –
(1) Urgent Doppler USG needs to be done
(2) USG can be delayed
(3) DTPA should be done
(4) Bladder catheter needs adjustment

3. Prophylaxis against Pneumocystis infection is best achieved with –
(1) Trimethoprim – sulfamethoxazole
(2) Erythromycin
(3) Ciprofloxacin
(4) Cephalexin

4. Commonest malignancy paediatric post-transplant is –
(1) EBV induced lymphoproliferative malignancy
(2) Skin cancer
(3) Leukaemia’s
(4) GI malignancy

5. DAMP (Danger Associated Molecular Pattern) includes –
(1) RNA
(2) Flagellin
(3) ATP
(4) Lipoteichoic acid

6. Survival rates for patients on dialysis are better than those for patients receiving renal allograft in the following circumstances –
(1) A living related donor is available
(2) A cadaver donor must be used
(3) The recipient’s renal failure is secondary to diabetes
(4) None of the above

7. Following renal transplantation, ureteral stricture formation occur mostly at the level of –
(1) Proximal ureter
(2) Middle part of ureter
(3) Ureterovesical anastomosis
(4) UPJ

8. Kidney transplant patient with chronic rejection presents with constipation. The contraindicated treatment is –
(1) Oral docusate calcium
(2) Oral psyilium
(3) Polyethylene glycol — electrolyte solution
(4) Phospho – soda enema

9. Prophylaxis against cytomegalovirus infection is best done with –
(1) Erythromycin
(2) Ganciclovir
(3) Trimethoprim — sulfamethoxozle
(4) Minocycline

10. Following statements are true, EXCEPT –
(1) First kidney allograft was performed in UK.
(2) Azathioprine became available for human use in 1961.
(3) Jean Doucet first described an antigen MAC.
(4) Cyclosporine is discovered to be powerful immune suppressor by Borel.

11. Earliest ECG changes in Hyperkalemia –
(1) Flattened P wave
(2) Prolonged PR interval
(3) Decreased ST segment
(4) Tall T wave

12. A frequent symptom associated with hyperphosphatemia is –
(1) Seizures
(2) Headache
(3) Diarrhoea
(4) Conjunctival itching

13. The renal structure at greatest risk of ischemic injury is –
(1) Proximal convoluted tubule
(2) Distal convoluted tubule
(3) Afferent arteriole
(4) JG apparatus

14. In renal failure commonly ABG suggestive of –
(1) Metabolic acidosis
(2) Metabolic alkalosis
(3) Respiratory acidosis
(4) Respiratory alkalosis

15. The optimum treatment of renal artery stenosis at mid portion of main arterial trunk in a transplanted kidney producing hypertension resistant to the medical therapy is –
(1) Nephrectomy
(2) Percutaneous dilatation of artery
(3) Surgical bypass of arterial stenosis
(4) Heparinization with medical treatment of hypertension

16. What are the incidences of nephrolithiasis in renal transplant recipient?
(1) 1%-5%
(2) 5% -10%
(3) 15% – 20%
(4) >20%

17. Incidence of lymphocele can be minimised by –
(1) Pelvic dissection
(2) Ligating lymphatic’s
(3) Avoiding sirolimus in early Postop period
(4) All of the above

18. Most common cause of graft rejection in paediatric patient –
(1) Chronic rejection
(2) Acute rejection
(3) Sub-acute rejection
(4) Immediate rejection

19. Indication of maintenance haemodialysis –
(1) Hypokalemia
(2) Metabolic alkalosis refractory to medical therapy
(3) Estimated GFR below 10 ml/1.73 m2
(4) Along with PD for better control

20. Which is ROTTO for Rajasthan?
(1) SGPGI Lucknow
(2) PGI Chandigarh
(3) SMS Jaipur
(4) AIMS Jodhpur

21. Five years after successful renal transplant a 55 years old man is referred to you because of total gross hematuria. Each of the following is an important part of the workup, EXCEPT –
(1) Unine cytology
(2) Imaging of native as well as transplanted kidney
(3) Urine PCA 3 determination
(4) Urethrocystoscopy

22. Most common early opportunistic infection in renal transplant recipients –
(1) Aspergillus
(2) Hepatitis B
(3) B.K. virus
(4) Pneumocystis carinii

23. Transplantation of Human Organ Act is passed and amended in –
(1) 1994, 2010
(2) 1994, 2011
(3) 1996, 2011
(4) 1990, 2011

24. All are true regarding erectile dysfunction in renal transplant recipient, EXCEPT –
(1) Because of side effect of immunosuppression and decrease in cavernosal blood supply
(2) Sildenafil decrease GFR
(3) Intracorporeal injection are effective
(4) Penile prosthesis is chosen if there is stable graft function for at least 6 months

25. Source of free radicals generation in deceased donor are all, EXCEPT –
(1) Xanthin oxidase
(2) Superoxide dismutase
(3) H2Q2
(4) H2O> with iron

26. Which of the following investigations would you not routinely perform on a 67-year-old man to assess his suitability to donate a kidney to his wife?
(1) Urine microscopy
(2) Colonoscopy
(3) Hepatitis serology
(4) Electrocardiogram

27. Calciphylaxis occurs when Ca x PO4 is >
(1) 30
(2) 40
(3) 50
(4) 60

28. The treatment options of stones in transplanted kidney –
(1) PCNL
(2) URSL/RIRS
(3) ESWL
(4) All of the above

29. In renal transplantation recipient if pre transplant evaluation suggestive of poor urinery flow and high residual urine. What is most useful investigation?
(1) Uroflowmetry and residual urine assessment by USG
(2) Cystomanometry with EMG of pelvic floor
(3) Videourodynamics
(4) Cystourethroscopy

30. Lymphoproliferative disorder are associated with which virus?
(1) EBV
(2) CMV
(3) HIV
(4) HSV

31. Overall reported mortality rate in first year after transplant is –
(1) 20%
(2) 10%
(3) 25%
(4) 5%

32. Haemorrhagic cystitis in immunocompromised patient is associated with which virus?
(1) EBV
(2) CMV
(3) Adenovirus
(4) Rhinovirus

33. Steroid resistant rejection is often treated with –
(1) Sirolimus
(2) Mycophenolate mofetil
(3) Basiliximab
(4) Antilymphocyte globulin

34. Which of the following is required for cellular sodium potassium pump to maintain high intracellular concentration of K+ and low intracellular concentration of Na+?
(1) ADP
(2) CMP
(3) ATP
(4) Nitric oxide

35. What is a surrogate marker for pancreases rejection in simultaneous pancreases-kidney transplant?
(1) Decrease amylase level
(2) Hyperglycaemia
(3) Raised creatinine level
(4) All of the above

36. Chronic antibody-mediated rejection —
(a) May be C4d negative in graft biopsy samples
(b) Has specific histopathologic features
(c) Is found more often in patients nonadherent to immunosuppressive medication
(d) Can be mediated only by HLA alloantibodies
(e) Is targeted by reduction of immunosuppression
Code –
(1) Only (a) and (b) are correct
(2) Only (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct
(3) Only (a), (b) and (c) are correct
(4) All are correct

37. While managing the donor (cadaveric) following are the goals of mechanical ventilations, except –
(1) Fraction of inspired oxygen 0.40
(2) Normal arterial pH
(3) Plateau pressure >35cm H20
(4) Tidal volume 8-10mi/kg

38. What is the method of donor ureteric re-implantation in augmented bladder?
(1) Donor ureter should be implanted in native bladder
(2) Donor ureter should be implanted in ileum or caecum component of augmented bladder
(3) Donor ureter should be anastomose with native ureter
(4) Transplant is not possible as ureter cannot be implanted in augmented bladder

39. All these are risk factors for chronic allograft nephropathy, EXCEPT –
(1) Histocompatibility mismatch
(2) Older age of donor
(3) Female recipient
(4) Donor and recipient size mismatch

40. Which preservation modality is used for renal allografts from older donors?
(1) Hypothermic pulsatile storage
(2) Cold storage
(3) Either of the above
(4) None of the above

41. Most important cytokine involved in the rejection process –
(1) IL-1
(2) IL-2
(3) IL-5
(4) Interferon-gamma

42. Following is true about renal artery thrombosis, EXCEPT –
(1) Seen in patients multiple arteries
(2) Occurs 2 weeks after transplant
(3) Painless cessation of urine flow
(4) Sudden rise in creatinine and hyperkalemia

43. True of hypotension, / Haematocrit and pain after transplant should raise suspicion of –
(1) Post-operative bleeding
(2) Coronary artery disease
(3) Acute rejection
(4) Urine leak

44. What is not true about graft survival?
(1) Adolescents have best 5 yrs results of any age
(2) African-American ethnicity is associated with worse outcome
(3) Long term survival in paediatric patients is best with HLA identical sibling
(4) Graft failure increase by 30% with moré than 5 transfusions pre-transplant

45. After living donor nephrectomy, the renal donor is expected to have what level of total renal function?
(1) 50%
(2) 60%
(3) 80%
(4) 100%

46. Most common acute complication of haemodialysis –
(1) Hypotension
(2) Muscle cramps
(3) Infection
(4) Anaphylactoid reaction

47. All of the following place a deceased donor into the Centers for Disease control’s “high-risk” category, EXCEPT –
(1) Man who has had sex with another man during the previous month.
(2) Donor who has smoked crack cocaine with the last year.
(3) History of intravenous heroin use 3 years ago.
(4) Man who was released from prison after a 15-year sentence 5 days before the pronouncement of brain death.

48. Most common form of early rejection is –
(1) Antibody mediated
(2) Cell mediated
(3) Vascular rejection
(4) Subclinical rejection

49. What is Sarcopenia?
(1) decrease in sleep in patient on dialysis
(2) reduced skeletal mass in patient on dialysis
(3) reduced fat in patient on dialysis
(4) poor nutrition in patient on dialysis

50. Following statements regarding renal failure and RRT is correct, EXCEPT –
(1) The expected life span once RRT started is approximately 8 year for individuals between 40-44 years and 4.5 years for individuals between 60-64 years.
(2) For patients starting haemodialysis all cause mortality peaks at the second month of treatment and decrease thereafter.
(3) Quality of life is better with PD than HD than transplant.
(4) Patient begins of PD experience gradual increase in mortality risk with in first 12 months of treatment.