Urology MCQ Question

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Urology MCQ Question

MCQ Question Papers on Urology

1. Which of the following is false regarding preoperative assessment for AVF creation?
(1) Inflow arterial assessment should be carefully done if implanted cardiac device is present
(2) Preoperative assessment improves outcomes of both surgical and percutaneous AVF
(3) Depth and tortuosity of target conduit is an important factor
(4) Venography is helpful in selected patients with suspected central venom stenosis

2. Peritransplantation abscess generally occurs within…………..weeks after transplantation.
(1) 4-5
(2) 1-2
(3) 8-10
(4) 7-8

3. ACCOMMODATION in renal transplant surgery refers to –
(1) Paired kidney transplant
(2) Transplant in ABO incompatible patient
(3) Transplant in HLQ incompatible patient
(4) Combined kidney and pancreas transplant

4. Genes that determine the rejection or acceptance of grafts are present in locus on chromosome –
(1) 16
(2) 10
(3) 6
(4) 4

5. What is true about the cancer development in kidney transplant recipient?
(1) Risk of cancer is development is great in patient who are older when they first undergo transplant.
(2) Risk of cancer development is great in patient who are younger when they first undergo transplant.
(3) Risk of cancer is not related with age at transplant.
(4) None of the above

6. Clinical manifestations of chronic antibody-mediated rejection are –
(a) Arise in serum creatinine
(b) Arise in protein excretion
(c) Specific for chronic antibody-mediated rejection
(d) Often late signs that occur after significant allograft damage has already occurred
Code –
(1) Only (a) is correct
(2) (a) and (b) are correct
(3) All answers are correct
(4) (a), (b) and (d) are correct

7. Approx. 50% of Hospitalization of dialysis dependent patients are of multiple reasons after the first hospitalization these patients are readmitted mainly of these following reasons, EXCEPT-
(1) Acute myocardial infarction
(2) Septicaemia
(3) Surgical complications
(4) Diabetes

8. Post-transplant patient showed signs of pallor and worsening shock. What is false about management of bleeding post-transplant?
(1) Source may be smail hilar vessels
(2) Occult coagulopathy should be ruled out
(3) Administration of blood, efficient dialysis, estrogen infusion and adrenaline may help
(4) Late profound haemorrhage is generally due to mycotic aneurysmal rupture

9. After donor nephrectomy common abnormality seen in donors urine routine examination after few months will be –
(1) Haematuria
(2) Pyuria
(3) Albuminuria
(4) Glycosuria

10. Which of the following recipient factors is an absolute contraindication to transplantation?
(1) Active sepsis
(2) HIV infection
(3) Obesity
(4) Age older than 70 years

11. If the first transplant has failed because of FSGS, than chances of second transplant failure because of the disease is –
(1) Nearly 50%
(2) Nearly 80%
(3) Rare
(4) Never occurs

12. In the event of multiple organs to be retrieved, the organ to be removed last is –
(1) Heart
(2) Lung
(3) Liver
(4) Kidneys

13. Before stating Apnea test following are prerequisite, EXCEPT –
(1) Normotensive
(2) Eucapnea PaCO2 35-45 mm Hg
(3) Hypothermic
(4) There should be no hypoxia

14. Hypothermia (0° to 4°C) is a critical component of successful organ cold storage, because –
(1) Oxygen is more soluble in cold solutions and provides a continual supply for energy metabolism.
(2) There is no way to suppress microbial growth except by cooling and showing the growth rate.
(3) Hypothermia diminishes energy requirements and allows the limited energy reserve to keep the organ.
(4) It slows metabolism and the enzymic processes that would destroy the cell.

15. DNA based typing has following advantages over serology, EXCEPT –
(1) Greater accuracy
(2) Reproducibility
(3) Can be done on any nucleated cells
(4) None of the above

16. In case of severe Hyperlipidemia post-transplant which drug may not need reduction or withdrawal –
(1) Cyclosporine
(2) Prednisolone
(3) Tacrolimus
(4) Azathioprine

17. Clinical presentation of stone disease in transplant kidney are all, EXCEPT –
(1) Asymptomatic
(2) Renal colic
(3) Gross Haematuria
(4) Reduced or absent urine output

18. Which of the following distinguish MHC class I from MHC class II antigens?
(1) MHC class I and class I antigens are encoded in different regions of the MHC complex.
(2) MHC class [ antigens are expressed on specialized antigen presenting cells, whereas MHC class {I antigens are expressed on all cells.
(3) MHC class If and class II are members of different supergene families.
(4) MHC class I are considered to be the major histocompatibility antigens and MHC class II the minor histocompatibility antigens.

19. Native kidney nephrectomy best done in –
(1) At the time of transplantation
(2) 6 weeks before transplantation
(3) 12 weeks before transplantation
(4) 6 weeks after transplantation

20. Patients on haemodialysis are required to maintain their serum phosphorus level at –
(1) Less than equal to 8 mg/dl
(2) Less than equal to 4 mg/dl
(3) Less than equal to 6 mg/dl
(4) Less than equal to 12 mg/dl

Question and Answer Objective
MCQs Sample Papers
Interview Pattern Model Papers

21. What is usual time of cancer presentation in kidney transplant patient?
(1) 2 years
(2) 4-5 years
(3) 6-10 years
(4) 10-15 years

22. True statement about warm ischemia time is –
(1) Period between circulatory arrest and commencement of cold storage
(2) Zero in brain dead donors
(3) Kidney may function after upto 60 minutes of warm ischemia
(4) All of the above

23. Which of the following renal disease has high probability of recurrence in patients with a kidney transplant resulting in failure of kidney graft?
(1) Chronic glomerulonephritis
(2) Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
(3) IgA Nephropathy
(4) Alport syndrome

24. Following infection in deceased donor is absolute contraindication for organ donation –
(1) HIV
(2) HBV and HCV
(3) Both of the above
(4) Nothing is absolute contraindication

25. Histocompatibility system of greatest importance in the renal transplant is –
(1) ABO
(2) HLA
(3) Both
(4) None of the above

26. Which of the following drugs have been shown to have proved fetal risk?
(1) Azathioprine
(2) Steroids
(3) Sirolimus
(4) Basiliximob

27. What is absolute contraindication of PD?
(1) Inflammatory bowel disease and encapsulating peritoneal sclerosis
(2) Obesity and advanced age
(3) Stomas, COPD
(4) Abdominal hernias

28. Most common urological malignancy in transplant recipient –
(1) Prostate malignancy
(2) Biadder tumor
(3) Renal cell carcinoma
(4) Testicular malignancy

29. Which one of the following immunological barriers should not be considered for successful kidney transplant?
(1) Blood group incompatibility
(2) HLA mismatch
(3) Anti-donor HLA antibody in recipient
(4) Rhesus factor positivity

30. Commonest early complication in donor nephrectomy –
(1) Bleeding
(2) Hernia
(3) Bowel obstruction
(4) Splenic injury

31. In peritoneal dialysis the catheter tip should be placed in –
(1) Morrison’s pouch
(2) Paracolic gutter in Rt. iliac fossa
(3) Paracolic gutter in left iliac fossa
(4) Rectovesical pouch

32. Which is prerenal cause of acute renal injury?
(1) Vasculitis
(2) Nephrotoxic medications
(3) Congestive heart failure
(4) Renal stone disease

33. Not true about malignancies post renal transplant is –
(1) Common in chronic dialysis patients
(2) All malignancies arise de novo
(3) Risk of transmission of malignancy from donor is extremely low
(4) Lung cancer is more common than general population

34. Patients administered IVIG should be monitored for following –
(1) Aseptic meningitis
(2) Osmotic nephrosis
(3) Impaired renal function
(4) All of the above

35. Urinomas may occur due to any of this following causes, EXCEPT –
(1) Acute rejection
(2) Incomplete bladder closure
(3) Collecting system ischemia
(4) Post biopsy injury

36. Which of the following is most important HLA before renal transplant?

37. Pre-transplant cholecystectomy is indicated in all of the following conditions, EXCEPT –
(1) Symptomatic gall stones
(2) Multiple small gall stones
(3) Single asymptomatic gall stones
(4) Cholelithiasis with gall bladder wall thickening

38. Manifestation of transplant renal artery stenosis can be any of the following, EXCEPT –
(1) Erythrocytosis
(2) Hypotension
(3) Allograft bruit
(4) Edema

39. Large volume of urine on the early post-operative course of renal transplant patients –
(1) Result from osmotic stimuli to diuresis
(2) May signify reversible polyuric acute tubular necrosis
(3) Facilitate the diagnosis of rejection and obstruction of the renal artery and/or collecting system
(4) All of the above

40. Cross match testing is necessary prior to surgical transplantation to detect anti HLA antibodies in recipient. Which one of the following test is not used to detect anti HLA antibodies in recipient?
(1) Panel reactive antibody test
(2) Anti-human globulin enhanced test
(3) Competent-dependent cytotoxicity test
(4) Solid phase bead or ELISA assay

41. A patient underwent transplant is into 4th week of post-transplant. On follow up his creatinine is 2.3 mg/dl. Biopsy shows fibrosis, Arteriolopathy hyalinization, atrophic tubules, ischemic collapse of glomeruli. He is suffering from –
(1) Chronic CNI toxicity
(2) ATN
(3) Arterial Antibody Mediated Rejection
(4) Acute CNI toxicity

42. Regarding management of recurrent FSGS –
(1) First-line therapy includes a 3-day course of daily intravenous pulses of methylprednisolone
(2) Cyclophosphamide should be commenced once recurrence is confirmed
(3) In a patient who develops nephrotic-range proteinuria 2 weeks after transplant, a biopsy specimen that is normal on light microscopy excludes the diagnosis of recurrent FSGS
(4) Plasma exchange should be commenced once a diagnosis of recurrent FSGS is made, with a plan to complete approximately nine cycles of therapy

43. True about concomitant kidney-liver transplantation –
(1) Not necessary to routinely cross match unsensitised patients before LKT
(2) Liver transplant provides a form of immunological protection
(3) Fear of recurrent disease greater than rejection
(4) All of the above

44. Following are immediate complications of donor nephrectomy, EXCEPT –
(1) Pulmonary thromboembolism
(2) Renal ischemia leading to graft rejection
(3) Wound infections
(4) Hematoma

45. Most common indication for treatment of Lymphocele –
(1) Bleeding
(2) Ureteral obstruction
(3) Patn in local area
(4) None of the above

46. Actuarial survival is a –
(1) Method of calculating how long a patient will live after kidney transplant failure
(2) Statistical method of maximizing the information available for analysis of outcome from a group of patients and events
(3) Way of making “actual results” seem more plausible
(4) Statistical method to estimate the outcomes of patients who are lost to follow-up

47. To improve outcome with marginal kidney graft, following is correct statement –
(1) We need to accept the poor outcome
(2) Reduction of cold ischemia time with better recipient selection
(3) We should use calcineurin inhibitor for immune suppression
(4) Use single kidney for transplant only

48. Indication for graft nephrectomy is –
(1) Irreversibly damaged graft kidney which is symptomatic
(2) Chronically rejected asymptomatic graft to withdraw immunosuppression
(3) To prevent development of HLA antibodies
(4) All of the above

49. Improved kidney surviving strategy includes all, EXCEPT –
(1) decreasing warm ischemia rather than cold ischemia
(2) age matching of donor and recipient
(3) use of pulsatile perfusion machine
(4) use of protective agents in solution

50. What has been described as the footprint for presence of antibody mediated rejection?
(1) C4d
(2) C3
(3) C3b
(4) Clq