Urology Model Question Papers

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Urology Model Question Papers

Model Question Papers on Urology

1. As per Lapides classification motor paralytic bladder is seen in all, EXCEPT –
(1) Tabes Dorsalis
(2) Pelvic Surgery
(3) Pelvic Trauma
(4) Herpes Zoster

2. Which statement is incorrect regarding the high success rate of shock wave lithotripsy?
(1) Results are better when stone is not located in the lower calyx
(2) Stone attenuation is less than 900 HU
(3) Skin to stone distance is less than 10 cm.
(4) When renal parenchymal thickness is about 1 cm.

3. A 62 year old man undergoes a transurethral biopsy of a bladder tumor at the dome. Pathology reveals muscle invasive urothelial and small cell carcinoma. Metastatic workshop is negative. The next step is –
(1) Intravesical gemcitabine therapy
(2) Partial cystectomy
(3) Radial cystoprostatectomy
(4) Chemo radiation therapy

4. What is the most important factor for choosing modality of treatment in renal stone?
(1) Stone composition
(2) Stone location
(3) Anatomic abnormalities
(4) Stone burden

5. Best way to differenciate between hematuria and pseudohematuria is –
(1) dipstick urine test
(2) urine for exfoliative cytology
(3) microscopic analysis
(4) electrophoresis

6. Indication of suprapubic prostatectomy for large prostatic adenoma and with –
(1) multiple small bladder calculi
(2) total SPSA > 10 ng/ml
(3) erectile dysfunction
(4) symptomatic bladder diverticulum

7. Incidence of congenital cryptorchidism at 1 year of age is –
(1) 1%
(2) 2-4%
(3) 5%
(4) 7%

8. Prostatic cancer patients those who are on surveillance died because of the following causes?
(1) Cardiovascular disease
(2) Prostatic cancer
(3) Prostate cancer induced anemia
What is the order of relative risk for causing death, choose correct answer using given codes-
(1) 1,2,3
(2) 2,3,1
(3) 2,1,3
(4) 3,2,1

9. Following a intracavernous injection of Trimix a patient developed full erection that is persistent since 5 hours. On examination the corpora is rigid. What is the diagnosis?
(1) Ischemic priapism
(2) Non ischemic priapism
(3) Persistent erection
(4) Physiological response to Trimix

10. All are advantages of retropubic prostatectomy over suprapubic approach, EXCEPT –
(1) excellent anatomic exposure
(2) direct access to bladder is achieved
(3) direct visualization of prostatic adenoma
(4) preservation of urinary continence

11. Which is true about supra sacral cord injury?
(1) Both smooth and striated sphincter dyssynergia
(2) Both smooth and striated sphincter synergia
(3) Smooth sphincter synergia and striated sphincter dyssynergia
(4) Smooth sphincter dyssgnergia and striated sphincter synergia

12. Following are likely findings on ultrasound of child (4yr) are found whose mother is diagnosed with cystic renal disease and a polycystin-1 mutation, EXCEPT –
(1) normal renal ultrasound
(2) aunilateral renal cyst
(3) hepatic fibrosis
(4) multiple unilateral cysts

13. Within how many hours of surgical castration, testosterone levels are within castrate range?
(1) 4 hours
(2) 6 hours
(3) 8 hours
(4) 12 hours

14. Pain associated with a stone in ureter is the result of –
(1) irritation of ureter mucosa by the stone
(2) obstruction of urine flow with distension of the renal capsule
(3) irritation of the intramural ureter
(4) urinary extravasation from a ruptured calyceal fornix

15. Which penile implant gives best rigidity and flaccidity?
(1) 2-Piece inflatable
(2) 3-Piece inflatable
(3) Malleable semi rigid rod
(4) Malleable rigid rod

16. Which is best surgical technique for sperm retrieval. Choose the correct answer from the following –
(1) Percutaneous Epididymal Sperm Aspiration (PESA)
(2) Microsurgical Epididymal Sperm Aspiration (MESA)
(3) Testicular Sperm Aspiration (TESA)
(4) Testicular Sperm Extraction (TESE)

17. Which assay is direct measure of sperm DNA fragmentation?
(1) Sperm DNA integrity assay
(2) TUNEL assay
(3) Comet assay
(4) Denatured sperm DNA assay

18. You collect urine specimen of a patient for routine analysis. The specimen is cloudy in colour. On adding acetic acid to urine the urine becomes clear. What is most probable cause of cloudy urine in this case?
(1) Phosphaturia
(2) Pyuria
(3) Chyluria
(4) Phenacetin

19. What are the main parasympathetic efferent innervation to the pelvic plexus arises from –
(1) S1
(2) S2 to S4
(3) T11 to L2
(4) L3 to S1

20. Which statement is incorrect about radical cystectomy and orthotopic neobladder construction in female?
(1) It should be done in the absence of bladder neck involvement
(2) These procedures should be adopted in low stage disease (< CT2)
(3) Vaginal closure should preferably done by interrupted closure
(4) Lympovascular invasion is not good prognostic sign

Question and Answer Objective
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21. You are catheterizing a patient of spinal cord injury. As soon as you insert the foley the patient develops headache, hypertension, flushing and sweating over face. What is the level of spinal cord injury in this patient?
(1) Lesion above brainstem
(2) Lesion above T6
(3) Lesion between T6 and S2
(4) Lesion below S2

22. Which is not the treatment option for the management of 2 cm long ureteric stricture situated 2 cm proximal to patent terminal ureter.
(1) End to End ureteric anastomosis
(2) Primary reimplantation
(3) Psoas hitch
(4) Boari flap

23. Which glucocorticoids among the following has the highest anti-inflammatory potency?
(1) Hydrocortisone
(2) Methylprednisolone
(3) Triamcinolone
(4) Dexamethasone

24. Following are the initial management of low volume urine leak after renal transplant, EXCEPT-
(1) Bladder catheter
(2) JJ stent placement
(3) Percutaneous nephrostomy tube placement
(4) Fluid restriction

25. What is the initial assessment of patient aged 50 years old with asymptomatic micro haematuria according to AUA guidelines?
(1) Blood pressure measurement, serum creatinine level cystoscopy and computed tomography
(2) Urine cytology, cystoscopy and CT urogram
(3) Urine cytology, Blue light cystoscopy and any upper tract imaging
(4) No evaluation is necessary unless micro hematuria is persistent/recurrent

26. Following are the risk factors for stone formation in a neurogenic bladder patient, EXCEPT-
(1) Chronic Inflammation
(2) UTI by Proteus, Klebsiella
(3) Black race
(4) Long term catheterization

27. Most commonly affected segment of abdominal wall in PBS are –
(1) medial and inferior
(2) medial and superior
(3) lateral and inferior
(4) lateral and superior

28. Which is incorrect regarding LATITUDE trial –
(1) it was done in metastatic prostate cancer patients
(2) in its treatment arm androgen deprivation, abiraterone and prednisone were used
(3) in its treatment arm androgen deprivation, docetaxel and prednisone were used
(4) treatment arm had superior overall survival benefits

29. Which statement is correct in reference of renal pyramids?
(1) It contains loops of Henle
(2) It contains loops of Henle and collecting ducts
(3) It contains loops of Henle, collecting ducts and papillary ducts
(4) It contains loops of Henle, collecting ducts, papillary ducts and mind calyx

30. The ureter related to the anterior portion of the uterosacral ligament –
(1) Lies inferior
(2) Lies posterior
(3) Lies superior
(4) Lies lateral

31. A neonate presents to you with urinary ascites. What could the most probable cause for this condition?
(1) Bladder rupture
(2) Cloacal malformation
(3) Posterior urethral valve
(4) Persistent urogenital sinus

32. False for congenital bladder diverticula is –
(1) peak incidence is age <10 years
(2) solitary
(3) more common in males
(4) located medial and posterior to ureteral orifice

33. The most cormon site of drainage of an ectopic ureter in a male is –
(1) vas deferens
(2) anterior urethra
(3) seminal vesicle
(4) posterior urethra

34. Following are the causes of unresolved bacteriuria —
(1) Papillary necrosis
(2) Bacterial resistance to selected drug
(3) Later on developed resistance
(4) Azotemia
(5) Rapid infection with new resistant organism
Arrange them in descending order of importance using the codes given below –
(1) 1,2,3,4,5,
(2) 2,3,4,5,1
(3) 1,3,4,5,2
(4) 2,3,5,4,1

35. Ideal diameter of urethral bulking agent should be –
(1) >50 µm
(2) >80 µm
(3) >100 µm
(4) >150 µm

36. Following statements are in reference to molecular and genetic pathway of Gleason 3 and 4 prostatic carcinoma —
(1) EGF, EGFR are absent in Gleason 3 but over express in 4
(2) VEGF is more in gleason 3 but less in 4
(3) PTEN is present in 90% of Gleason 3 but it is deleted in majority of 4
(4) Resisting apoptosis, BCL3 expressed in Gleason 3 but absent in 4
Select correct answer using given codes –
(1) 1,2
(2) 1,3
(3) 3,4
(4) 2,4

37. Most common UDS finding in Parkinson disease is –
(1) Smooth sphincter synergia
(2) Impaired detrusor contractility
(3) Detrusor overactivity
(4) True detrusor sphincter dyssynergia

38. Prostatic urethra should accommodate an instrument of –
(1) 28 Fr
(2) 30 Fr
(3) 32 Fr
(4) 34 Fr

39. Proper management of a case of avulsed ureter during basketing of stone with no guide wire in place.
(1) Immediate surgical exploration and repair
(2) Cystoscopy to place a guide wire and ureteral stent
(3) Placement of a percutaneous nephrostomy drain
(4) Immediate ileal ureter

40. 3 months after PFUDD, 2 cm defect in posterior urethra. What is true about repair?
(1) one stage anastomotic urethroplasty is preferred
(2) orthopedic hardware is contraindication of open repair
(3) BMG urethroplasty is recommended
(4) Urethral stent placement is recommended

41. A patient with advanced prostate cancer comes with active gross hematuria. After initial management (Hydration, Continuous bladder irrigation, supportive care), next step is –
(1) androgen deprivation therapy tradiotherapy
(2) channel TURP
(3) urinary diversion in form of PCN
(4) palliative prostatectomy

42. UPOINT is a phenotyping tool used in men with CPPS. What is meaning of ‘N’ here?
(1) Nonbactertal
(2) Non inflammatory
(3) Neurologic
(4) Normal prostate exam

43. A Patient having history of recurrent stone formation was put on allopurinol and sodium, potassium citrate, Inspire of these drugs there was stone formation which type of stone it can be –
(1) Uric acid
(2) Calcium phosphate carbonate apatite
(3) Cystine
(4) Calcium oxalate

44. Most common cause of cystic disease in children is –
(1) Multicystic dysplastic kidney
(2) Medullary cystic disease
(3) Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease
(4) Medullary sponge kidney

45. Which of the following is correct about cytotoxic chemotherapy?
(1) Docetaxel is not the standard first line for Metastatic Castration Resistant Prostate Cancer (MCRPC)
(2) GE TUG AFUIS trial compared G cycles of standard dosed docetaxel 75mg/ml2 every 21 days with Androgen Deprivation Therapy (ADT) versus ADT alone
(3) Docetaxel should not be used for metastatic castration sensitive prostate cancer
(4) Platinum agents are second line option for patients with MCRPC with progressive disease

46. What would be the incision over peritoneum to preserve the vascular supply of the ureter?
(1) Always medial to the ureter
(2) Laterally in the abdomen and medially in the pelvis
(3) Medically in the abdomen and laterally in the pelvis
(4) Always lateral to the ureter

47. Which one is not the etiological factor for carcinoma penis?
(1) Phimosis
(2) Human papillomavins infection
(3) Bleomycin intravesical instillation
(4) Tobacco consumption

48. Which hormone is responsible for stimulating the growth of prostate during development?
(1) Estradiol
(2) DHT
(3) Testosterone
(4) Inhibin

49. The anterior and posterior laminal of Gerota fascia merge laterally to form –
(1) transversus abdominis
(2) lumbodorsal fascia
(3) lateral renal fascia
(4) lateroconal fascia

50. A female is undergoing radical cystectomy. Which structure is not removed?
(1) Ovaries
(2) Uterus
(3) Cervix
(4) Posterior Vagina