Urology Nursing Question Papers

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Nursing Question Papers on Urology

1. A female patient with uncomplicated cystitis is to be started on antibiotics. What is duration of therapy?
(1) 3 days
(2) 5 days
(3) 7 days
(4) 10 days

2. What are correct regarding vascular complications during laproscopic and robotic surgeries of the kidney?
(1) Proper identification of vascular structure are important to prevent complications
(2) There should be meticulous surgical dissection
(3) Common areas for post-operative bleeding are bed of dissection, adrenal, gonadal, lumber vessels
(4) Malfunction of equipment is also responsible for this complication
Choose correct answer using given codes –
(1) 1,2,3,4
(2) 1,2,4
(3) 2,3,4
(4) 1,3,4

3. A man of 34 years presented with large retroperitoneal mass and raised LDH level without any other clinical finding. Which investigation should be done next for diagnosis?
(1) Repeat tumor marker study
(2) CT Scan abdomen
(3) Biopsy of mass
(4) Ultrasonography of Scrotum

4. A 20 year old male has solid, painless, right intratesticular mass, confirmed in scrotal USG, the following are the tumor marker hca — 96 mU/mL (upper limit < 5 mU/mL) α – Fetoprotein — 58 ng/ml (upper limit < II ng/ml) so what is most likely histologic finding in right testis?
(1) Pure teratoma
(2) Pure seminoma
(3) Pureembryonal carcinoma
(4) Pure yolk sac tumor

5. False for primary mediastinal NSGCT in comparison to tumors of testes is –
(1) carry extra copy of short arm of chromosome 12
(2) more sensitive to chemotherapy
(3) associated with elevations in serum α-fetoprotein (AFP)
(4) associated with klinefelter syndrome

6. During insertion of veress needle you noticed vascular backflow upon aspiration. Which vessel is most likely to be injured?
(1) Left iliac vein
(2) Right iliac vein
(3) Left iliac artery
(4) Right iliac artery

7. Choose the correct answer –
(1) Thin descending limb of loop of Henle is poorly permeable whereas ascending thin limb is highly permeable to water
(2) Thin descending limb of loop of Henle is highly permeable whereas ascending thin limb is impermeable to water
(3) Thin descending limb of loop of Henle is highly permeable to Na+ and Cl-
(4) Thin ascending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to Na+ and Cl-

8. Patient with vaginal vault prolapse and no symptoms of stress urinary incontinence should undergo a sacrocolpopexy only (i.e. no sling) –
(1) regardless of preoperative testing
(2) if stress urinary incontinence was only demonstrated on physical examination
(3) if no stress urinary incontinence was demonstrated on either physical examination or urodynamic testing
(4) if they had a previous history of a bulking agent

9. Sentinel lymph node in Ca penis is –
(1) superomedial to the junction of the saphenous and femoral veins
(2) superolateral to the junction of the saphenous and femoral veins
(3) inferomedial to the junction of the saphenous and femoral veins
(4) inferolateral to the junction of the saphenous and femoral veins

10. The most common aetiology for ESRD in the United States is –
(1) Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis (FSGS)
(2) Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (type 2)
(3) Membranous glomerulonephritis
(4) Diabetes mellitus

11. Which is not a predictor of cancer-specific survival after nephrectomy for RCC?
(1) Pathologic stage
(2) Tumor size
(3) Nuclear grade
(4) Patient age

12. In a patient of RCC, there is an isolated right — sided varicocele. You suspect tumor thrombus and advise the patient for MRI scan. The scan shows involvement of intrahepatic portion of IVC below the diaphragm. What is the level of this thrombus?
(1) Stage I
(2) Stage
(3) Stage
(4) Stage IV

13. Identify correct statement about flap and graft used for urethroplasty —
(1) Onlay flap procedure has superior outcome than graft
(2) In onlay procedure both graft and flap have equivalent success rate
(3) Tubularized graft and flap have equivalent outcome
(4) Tubularized flap has superior outcome as compared to graft
Select the correct answer using the given codes –
(1) 1,3
(2) 2,4
(3) 2,3
(4) 1,4

14. Embryological adrenal cortex arises from –
(1) urogenital ridge
(2) neural crest
(3) metanephron
(4) None of the above

15. Ureteral calcification in Schistosomiasis is –
(1) intramural with dilated ureter
(2) intramural with non-dilated ureter
(3) extramural with dilated ureter
(4) extramural with non-diated ureter

16. What is advantage of supine PCNL over prone PCNL?
(1) Improved pulmonary mechanics
(2) A large horizontal working surface
(3) Easier entry into upper pole calyces
(4) Reduced pressure in the collecting system

17. In patients with unilateral renal agenesis, the ipsilateral adrenal gland is commonly –
(1) found just inside the ipsilateral internal inguinal ring
(2) found in its normal anatomic position in the upper retroperitoneum
(3) absent
(4) found in association with the contralateral adrenal gland

18. All are the absolute indication for operative management in renal trauma, EXCEPT –
(1) Expanding/pulsatile hematoma
(2) Suspected renal vascular pedicle avulsion
(3) Ureteropelvic junction avulsion
(4) Urinary extravasation from parenchymal injury.

19. A patient of Nonseminoma germ cell tumor, on imaging found to have isolated frontal lobe brain metastasis. Which is the best treatment option?
(1) Excision — As complete cure possible
(2) Chemotherapy — As it will take off all micrometastasis
(3) Radiation — As it will avoid tumor bleeding
(4) Low dose radiation and 2 cycles of chemotherapy — As non seminoma is non radio sensitive

20. Factors responsible for recovery of erectile function after radical prostatectomy are all, EXCEPT –
(1) age of patient
(2) duration of surgery
(3) status of potency preoperatively
(4) ability to preserve both NVB

21. Urine production begins at –
(1) 8th week of gestation
(2) 10th week of gestation
(3) 12th week of gestation
(4) 14th week of gestation

22. During VVF repair transvaginally, how can we access posterior peritoneum –
(1) Posterior Fornix
(2) Anterior Fornix
(3) Rectovaginal septum
(4) Lateral fornices

23. The major complication of MRI with gadolinium in patients with CKD is –
(1) Seizures
(2) Hepatotoxicity
(3) Anaphylaxis
(4) Nephrogenic system fibrosis

24. Most significant complication of CAPD is –
(1) Bowel injury
(2) Sepsis
(3) Peritonitis
(4) Bleeding

25. Furesemide acts on which part of Nephron?
(1) PCT
(2) DCT
(3) Collecting Duct
(4) Ascending loop of Henle

26. First Laparoscopic donor nephrectomy was performed by –
(1) Peter Morris
(2) James P. Hunter
(3) Ratner et. al.
(4) Barry Warshaw

27. Following are side effects of OKT-3, EXCEPT –
(1) Cytokine release syndrome
(2) Non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema
(3) Aseptic meningitis
(4) Thrombocytopenia

28. As compared to surgical AVF creation, true about percutaneous AVF creation is –
(1) in percutaneous AVF the time to first cannulation is shorter
(2) percutaneous AVF gives maximal flow rates of 500 ml/min
(3) percutaneous AVF maturation is inferior to surgical AVF
(4) Percutaneous AVF has more short term complication

29. While recipient selection following is to be matched, EXCEPT –
(1) Body surface area of donor and recipient not requires matching
(2) Hyper filtrate markers
(3) Age matching
(4) Histopathology of donor’s kidney

30. While declaring decreased as brain dead following cranial nerves needs to be examined for brainstem reflex, EXCEPT –
(1) III
(2) X
(3) VIII
(4) XI

31. A 40-year-old woman is willing to donate her kidney to her daughter with type I diabetes. Her BMI is 38 kg/m2 BP-142/92 mmHg and 24 hours proteinuria of 310 mg and she has a history if recurrent calcium oxalate stones. Which one of the following statement regarding her kidney donation is incorrect?
(1) She is best donor if HLA matched
(2) Her proteinuria indicates underlying glomerular disease
(3) Her uncontrolled BP and high BMI exclude her from donation
(4) She is at risk for surgical complications

32. Behavioural risk factors of transplant waitlisted patients are all, EXCEPT –
(1) Sexual behaviour
(2) Dietary adherence
(3) Physical activity
(4) Weight management

33. The most common cancer after kidney transplantation is –
(1) Skin
(2) Cervix
(3) Kaposi sarcoma
(4) Thyroid

34. The wait list of patients needing transplant is prepared considering following points, EXCEPT –
(1) Hospital wise list and age wise list
(2) Organ and blood group wise list
(3) Profession wise list
(4) Seniority in wait list first in first out

35. Pseudo rejection occurs in –
(1) Hyperglycemia
(2) Dehydration
(3) Cyclosporine toxicity
(4) Infection

36. Most cost effective treatment for ESRD is –
(1) Renal Transplant
(2) Peritoneal Dialysis (CAPD)
(3) Maintenance Dialysis
(4) Dialysis through central vain

37. Preservative solution should be all, EXCEPT –
(1) Rich in colloid
(2) High in calcium
(3) Having good buffering agent
(4) Rich in citrate

38. In brain death “Cushing reflex” denotes –
(1) Tachycardia with hypotension
(2) Bradycardia with hypertension
(3) Tachycardia with hypertension
(4) Bradycardia with hypotension

39. What is Gold standard method to check for GFR measurement to know renal function?
(1) Measurement of GFR by chromium labelled EDTA
(2) Measurement of GFR by iothalamate clearance
(3) Measurement of GFR by inulin clearance
(4) 24 hours urine collection for creatinine clearance

40. The best renal imaging protocol for a living renal donor to define renal anatomy and renal vasculature and to rule out renal stone is –
(1) KUB x-ray with arteriography
(2) Plain and CECT abdomen and pelvis (Helical CT)
(3) Renal ultrasonography and selective renal arteriography
(4) Magnetic resonance nephrotomography with angiography

41. What is “Lazarus sign”?
(1) in deceased donor it is false movement of eyes
(2) in deceased donor it is false chest movement while apnea test
(3) in deceased donor it is false movement of extremities and neck and shoulder while giving painful stimuli
(4) in deceased donor it is change of cardiac parameters while giving painful stimuli to the donor

42. Deceased donor score having 7 variable out of which 5 are used in score they all, EXCEPT –
(1) Age
(2) Hypertension
(3) Infection as cause of death
(4) HLA mismatch

43. All of the following are side effects of tacrolimus, EXCEPT –
(1) Diabetes mellitus
(2) Hyper kalemia
(3) Hyper vricemia
(4) Hyper cholesterolemia

44. What is recommendation for bladder reconstruction in candidate of renal transplant?
(1) Bladder reconstruction should be done after transplantation
(2) Bladder reconstruction should be done at the time of renal transplantation
(3) Bladder reconstruction should be done several weeks prior of transplantation
(4) None of the above

45. How often is preterm delivery expected in pregnant kidney transplant recipient?
(1) 50%
(2) 90%
(3) 20%
(4) 75%

46. Early cell mediated rejection most commonly presents as –
(1) Asymptomatic rise in serum creatinine
(2) Oliguria
(3) Mild fever
(4) Graft tenderness

47. Which is not component of hemodialyser system?
(1) Dtalyser
(2) Dialysate
(3) Renal Biopsy
(4) Blood delivery system

48. What is true about the revascularization of donor graft?
(1) Always first do arterial anastomosis
(2) Always first do venom anastomosis
(3) Arterial or venous anastomosis first depends on the final position of the kidney and ease with which the second anastomosis may be done
(4) None of the above

49. Function of NOTTO will be all, EXCEPT –
(1) Lay down policies and guidance and protocols
(2) It allocate the surgical team for transplant
(3) Data complication from regional and state organisation
(4) Coordinate and organise various training programs

50. Which of the following statements about AV fistula is true?
(1) Risk of infection is lower than with a dialysis catheter
(2) Thrill should only be felt during systole
(3) It is contraindicated if LVEF is less than 40%
(4) Blood flow is good if it remains full of blood when arm is elevated