Urology Objective Question Papers

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Objective Question Papers on Urology

1. Which nomogram is used for predicting the stage of prostatic carcinoma?
(1) Kattan
(2) Parton
(3) Tamada
(4) Schroder

2. A 40 year male patient of blunt injury abdomen came with the enhanced CT Scan which shows good arterial perfusion, normal appearing parenchyma and collecting system with medial hematoma. What is the probable site of injury?
(1) Arterial
(2) Venous
(3) Pelvic ureteric junction
(4) Upper ureter

3. What is the role of intravesical mitomycin—C chemotherapy for high risk superficial bladder cancer?
(1) Reduces the risk of progression
(2) Reduces the risk of recurrence
(3) Is preferrel over BCG, particularly for CIS
(4) None of the above

4. A patient comes to you with complaint of swelling over left scrotum. Upon examination there are dilated spermatic veins which are easily visible and decompress in supine position. What is the grade of varicocele?
(1) Grade 1
(2) Grade 2
(3) Grade 3
(4) Grade 4

5. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding urodynamic studies?
(1) Not essential before surgical treatment of stress incontinence
(2) Essential when urodynamic obstruction is suspected
(3) Indicated in the diagnosis and management of Neurogenic voiding dysfunction
(4) Essential for diagnosis and management of over active bladder

6. A patient complains of total incontinence. His urine loss is unrelated to any physical activity. As per Stamey incontinence grading system it is –
(1) Grade 1
(2) Grade 2
(3) Grade 3
(4) Grade 4

7. Which is not the usual complication of mid urethral mesh surgery?
(1) Sexual dysfunction
(2) Mesh perforation in rectum
(3) Urinary retention
(4) Infection and pain

8. What doses at and above of ionizing radiation causes irreparable damage to spermatogenesis in exposed testis?
(1) 2.5Gy
(2) 5Gy
(3) 7.5Gy
(4) 10Gy

9. What is most common urologic complication after phallic reconstruction?
(1) Urethral fistula
(2) Urethral stricture
(3) Stress incontinence
(4) Urge incontinence

10. Pain in the flaccid penis is usually due to –
(1) peyronie’s disease
(2) bladder or urethral inflammation
(3) calculi impacted in the distal ureter
(4) priapism

11. A person is a known case of pheochromocytoma. Classical triad will include all, EXCEPT-
(1) Headache
(2) Episodic perspiration
(3) Tachycardia
(4) Flushing

12. Which statement is incorrect about enzalutamide –
(1) It increases survival when used in non-metastatic castration resistant prostate cancer
(2) it is advised as a standard of care for metastatic costration sensitive prostate cancer
(3) it should not be used in androgen receptor splice variants AR-V7
(4) it increases AR mediated transcription

13. All are seen with tumor lysis syndrome, EXCEPT –
(1) Hyperuricemia
(2) Hypercalcemia
(3) Hyperphosphatemia
(4) hyperkalemia

14. Which one of the following statement is incorrect regarding the best measures for reduction of radiation exposure to the medical persons?
(1) Reducing time of exposures
(2) maximizing distance from radiation source
(3) Shielding
(4) Increasing numbers of exposures

15. What is the typical microscopic picture of xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis?
(1) Eosinophilic cells with inflammatory cells
(2) Lipid laden histocytes with inflammatory cells
(3) Giant cells, fatty cells, with inflammatory cells
(4) Michaelis-Gutmann bodies cells with inflammatory cells

16. Possible causes of pneumaturia are following, EXCEPT one –
(1) diverticulitis of bladder
(2) colon carcinoma
(3) recently done urinary tract instrumentation
(4) ectopic ureter

17. Patient with retention of urine on cystoscopy found to have large prostate with big median lobe, bladder has big bladder diverticula with variable size stones. Which approach will be the best to deal these problems?
(1) Retropubic
(2) Suprapubic transvesical
(3) Transurethral
(4) Combination of (1) and (3)

18. All are true for cryoablation (CA) of renal tumor, EXCEPT –
(1) Argon gas based system is used
(2) Target temperature is less than – 20°C
(3) A double freeze thaw cycle is used
(4) Each cycle should last for 8-10 minutes

19. Management of clinical stage [NASCT in 20 years old man who has undergone laproscopic RPLND and found to have 2 cm Lymph node –
(1) Convert to an open procedure
(2) Abort the procedure and administer chemo.
(3) Perform a unilateral template dissection and administer chemotherapy
(4) Continue the procedure and perform a full bilateral dissection.

20. A hypoechoic lesion of the prostate can be caused by all of the following, EXCEPT –
(1) Granulomatous prostatitis
(2) Transition zone, benign prostatic hyperplasia nodule
(3) Prostate cancer
(4) Hematologic malignancies

21. What is the best energy source to be used in laproscopic surgeries for incising & hemostasis?
(1) LASER
(2) Monopolar electrosurgical system
(3) Bipolar electrosurgical system
(4) Ultrasound based system

22. Which statement is not true regarding the success of shock wave lithotripsy for given renal stone size?
(1) Placement of a ureteral stent improves the outcome
(2) Precise intrarenal location other than lower pole does not affect the outcome
(3) Stone hardness is important factor
(4) Obstruction distal to stone negatively affect the outcome

23. At what level above spinal cord injury, bladder filling may precipitate autonomic dysreflexia –
(1) S2 level
(2) LA level
(3) T10 level
(4) T6 level

24. All are relative indications for abdominal repair of VVF repair, EXCEPT –
(1) Large fistula
(2) Need for ureteral reimplantation
(3) Radiation fistula
(4) Low fistula

25. You are taking testicular biopsy of azoospermic men with normal palpable testis, normal vas deferens and normal FSH. Which fixatives will you not use for testicular biopsy?
(1) Bouin
(2) Zenker
(3) Collidine Buffered Glutaraldehyde
(4) Formaldehyde

26. Which is false about Erythropoiesis?
(1) Reduced Erythropoiesis is common in CKD
(2) Erythropoiesis is inhibited by low circulating oxygen tension
(3) During chromic Inflammation, Erythropoiesis is decreased
(4) The Kidney makes most of the Erythropoietin in the body

27. A patient undergoing major surgical procedure, his prior platelet count was 62000/mm, during surgery there was diffuse oozing of blood noted, so what the appropriate hemostatic agent would be –
(1) An oxidized regenerated cellulose agent
(2) Micro fibrillar collagen
(3) A topical thrombin agent
(4) A fibrin sealant

28. What is commonest site of penile cancers?
(1) Glans
(2) Coronal sulcus
(3) Shaft
(4) Frenulum

29. Which test should always be considered in men with prevalent storage symptoms & history of smoking?
(1) Unnalysis
(2) Serum PSA level
(3) Urine cytology
(4) Frequency volume charts

30. Most common accepted indication for care needle biopsy of renal mass –
(1) renal cell carcinoma
(2) renal oncocytoma
(3) renal cyst
(4) renal metastasis

31. Which is not true about ureteral urothelial tumor?
(1) 70% in distal ureter
(2) Biadder recurrence is 15% to 75% within 5 years
(3) MRIis better than CT scan for distinguishing it from other pathology
(4) Metastasis of disease is nearly zero at diagnosis
Choose the correct answer using the given codes –
(1) 2,3,4
(2) 1,2
(3) 2,3
(4) 3,4

32. What are the main watershed areas in colon where anastomosis should be avoided?
(1) Area near splenic flexure
(2) Area near hepatic flexure
(3) Middle part of transverse colon
(4) Area near rectosigmoid junction
Select correct answer using —
(1) 1,2
(2) 2,4
(3) 1,4
(4) 2,3

33. Following are the common presentations in most of the benign renal mass, Except
(1) Female gender
(2) Incidental diagnosis
(3) Older patient age
(4) Smoking history

34. Classic triad of hypospadias includes all, EXCEPT –
(1) Dorsally hooded foreskin
(2) Proximal urethral meatus
(3) Ventral penile curvature
(4) Micropenis

35. What is common mechanism behind Ureteral injury during stone basketing?
(1) Ureteroscopy without dilating the ureteral orifice first.
(2) Ureteroscopy in nondilated systems
(3) Use of the holmium loser
(4) Persistence in stone basketing attempts 1n the face of a ureteral tear

36. A 50 year old man undergoes a partial nephrectomy for a 4cm renal mass. On pathologic evaluation, the mass is diffusely eosinophilic for establishing the diagnosis of oncocytoma which immunohisto chemical will be helpful-
(1) cytokeratin 7
(2) Estrogenic receptor
(3) HMB -45
(4) Melan—A

37. Which one is not the function of mineralo-corticoids?
(1) Renal sodium reabsorption
(2) Renal chloride reabsorption
(3) Renal potassium reabsorption
(4) Renal proton secretion

38. While doing open radical prostatectomy, where will you find neurovascular bundle of walsh?
(1) Between Prostatic fascia and Levator fascia
(2) Between Denonvilliers fascia and Prostatic fascia
(3) Between Denonvilliers fascia and Levator fascia
(4) None of the above

39. Which is not the indication for a metabolic stone evaluation?
(1) Children with stone
(2) Recurrent stone former
(3) Amyloidosis with infection
(4) Patients having pathological fracture

40. Which of the following is not advisable for the treatment of genetic Tuberous sclerosis complex associated Angiomyolipoma (AML)?
(1) Selective arterial embolization
(2) Cryoablation
(3) Electromagnetic ablation
(4) Everolimus

41. If PFUDO, after excision of the traumatic scan, the distance between the two ends of healthy urethra can be minimized by all of the following, EXCEPT –
(1) Mobilizing the corpus spongiosum of the corpora covernosa up to the corona of the glans
(2) Excision of buck fascia from the corpus spongiosum
(3) Dissection of the intracrural space down to the pubis
(4) Periosteal elevation and infrapubectomy

42. Which doing pyelolithotomy you accidently injured the most anterior structure at the renal hilum. Which structure is injured?
(1) Anterior segmental artery
(2) Renal vein
(3) Renal artery
(4) Renal pelvis

43. How will you manage a 3 month old child with ultrasound finding of dilated pelvis having 10 mm anterio posterior diameter with pelvis and major clypeal dilated. Where ultrasonography expect above does not show any other positive finding?
(1) Go for isotope renal scan, voiding cystourethbrogram if both are normal then start prophylactic antibiotics
(2) Monthly ultrasonography, two monthly isotope renal scan and continuous prophylactic antibiotics
(3) Monthly ultrasonography, repeated voiding cystourethrogram three monthly for one year and continuous prophylactic antibiotics
(4) Repeat ultrasonography at 3 and 6 month and decide accordingly

44. Following are the risk factors for stone formation in kidney, Except one-
(1) Diabetes
(2) Sarcoidosis
(3) Parkinson disease
(4) Family history of stones

45. A woman during UDS examination is found with absence of electromyography (EMC) recruitment with a squeezing of the clitoris, it suggests –
(1) S2S3 S4 de-innervation
(2) dysfunction in the cauda — equina
(3) positive Bulbocavernosus Reflex (BCR)
(4) normal finding in 30% of normal females

46. All are associated with renal vein thrombosis, EXCEPT –
(1) Elevated LDH
(2) Shrunken kidney
(3) Hematuria
(4) Flank pain

47. Nephrocalcin inhibits –
(1) Growth of calcium oxalate monohydrate crystals
(2) Nucleation of calcium oxalate crystals
(3) Aggregation of calcium oxalate crystals
(4) All of the above

48. Which is correct about complications of hypospadias repair?
(1) 60% of complications occur within 1 month after surgery
(2) Potential risk factors for complication after hypospadias repair is proximal meatus location
(3) Meatal stenosis is most common complication
(4) Cecil — Culp repair for hypospadias may cause chordee

49. Which vaccine is US FDA approved for Genito urinary cancer?
(1) Prostvac-VF for prostate cancer
(2) IMA901, for kidney cancer
(3) Gardasil, for human papillomavirus
(4) Sipuleucel-T for prostate cancer

50. Which is considered as first line treatment for calical diverticular stone?
(1) Shock wave lithotripsy
(2) Percutaneous lithotomy
(3) Ureterorenoscopy
(4) Laproscopy