Urology Sample Question Papers

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Sample Question Papers on Urology

1. A patient comes to you with penile fracture. You have repaired the defect. How long would you advice the patient to refrain from sexual activities?
(1) 1 week
(2) 2 weeks
(3) 4 weeks
(4) 8 weeks

2. What is the clinical symptom in 3 months old baby with urinary tract infection?
(1) Diarrhea
(2) Frequent urination
(3) Fever
(4) Jaundice

3. Which finding in CT imaging differentiates Bosniak I-IIF from Bosniak III-IV renal cysts?
(1) Enhancement on administration of IV contrast
(2) high density cystic fluid
(3) Intraseptal calcifications
(4) Septal nodularity

4. Which is the most important prognostic factor for squamous cell carcinoma of penis?
(1) Presence and extent of inguinal metastasis
(2) Pathological T stage of primary tumor
(3) Grade of disease
(4) Paraneoplastic syndrome along with size of primary disease and perineural invasion

5. What paraneoplastic syndrome is identified in patients with metanephric adenoma?
(1) Hyper aldosteronism
(2) Hyper parathyroidism
(3) Cushing syndrome
(4) Polycythemia

6. A female complains of leaking of urine per vagina. On double dye test (with oral phenazopyridine and intravesical blue dye instillation), blue discolouration of tampon is seen in bottom portion. What is the probable diagnosis?
(1) Ureterovaginal fistula
(2) Vesicovaginal fistula
(3) Urethrovaginal fistula
(4) Vesicouterine fistula

7. Prediction of seminal vesicle by prostate MRI is characterized by a high –
(1) False — positive rate
(2) Positive predictive value
(3) Sensitivity
(4) Negative predictive value

8. A patient of Lesch Nyhan syndrome was on treatment with high dose of Allopurinol, so what will the composition of stone in this patient?
(1) Hypoxanthine
(2) Uric acid
(3) Xanthine
(4) 2, 8—- Dihydroxyadenine

9. Kerr’s kink in GUTB is seen at –
(1) ureteropelvic junction
(2) abdominal ureter
(3) pelvic ureter
(4) vesicoureteric junction

10. Correct statement for bladder cancer in a renal transplant recipient –
(1) Kidney transplant patients are at a same risk of developing bladder cancer as compared with the general population.
(2) Bladder cancer in kidney transplant patients is aggressive and tends to be associated with higher recurrence rates.
(3) Intravesical bacillus Calmette-Guerin cannot be used because of immunosuppression and high overall comorbidity
(4) All are true

11. A 65 years man with 5 PSA of 20ng/ml underwent ultrasound guided 12 core needle biopsy prostate, which turned out to be BPH. Since then PSA was constantly rising & at 6 month it was 35ng/ml. What should be the best diagnostic approach?
(1) MPMRI (Multi Parametric Magnetic Resonance Imaging)
(2) Repeat Transrectal Ultrasound Guided Saturation Biopsy
(3) Position Emission Tomography — choline based
(4) Magnetic Resonance Ultrasonography Fusion Guided Biopsy

12. Most common benign enhancing renal mass is –
(1) Renal cyst
(2) Oncocytoma
(3) AML
(4) cystic nephroma

13. During radial prostectomy which is the most common site of positive margin?
(1) Area near the neurovascular bundle
(2) At prostatic bed
(3) Prostate apex
(4) At bladder neck

14. In psoas hitch procedure which nerve may get injured?
(1) Obturator nerve
(2) Genitofemoral nerve
(3) Hioinguinal nerve
(4) Sciatic nerve

15. You perform transurethral resection of bladder tumour. Pathological reports are suggestive of T1 disease. No muscle tissue was identified in specimen. What will you do next?
(1) Intravesical therapy
(2) Photodynamic therapy
(3) Repeat TURBT after 6 weeks
(4) Cystectomy

16. Prostate specific membrane antigen has been identified in –
(1) Prostate
(2) Astrocyte
(3) schwann cells
(4) All

17. Sipuleucel — T is the first FDA vaccine approved for –
(1) Renal cell carcinoma
(2) Bladder cancer
(3) Penile cancer
(4) Prostate cancer

18. A70Q years old man on finasteride for 2 years. Now he has SPSA 4ng/ml, so what would be the SPSA value if he is not taking the finasteride?
(1) 2ng/ml
(2) 6ng/ml
(3) 8ng/ml
(4) 12ng/ml

19. In which condition partial cystectomy can be done –
(1) 4cm T2 lesion in the trigone
(2) 1cm T2 lesion in the dome
(3) 3cm T2 lesion in the dome with CIS
(4) CIS in two locations

20. Asper AUA guideline bone scan is recommended only for patients with –
(1) Suspected locally advanced disease
(2) Gleason score 7 or more
(3) PAS level greater than 15 ng/ml
(4) All

21. A patient is planned for PCNL for renal pelvic calculus. Intraoperatively your consultant changes plan from standard PCNL to microperc. What is the needle size that you will give to your consultant for microperc?
(1) 12G
(2) 14G
(3) 16G
(4) 18G

22. False for microfibrillar collagen is –
(1) It stimulates blood clotting by allowing proteins of the clotting cascade and platelets to adhere to it
(2) Microfibrillar collagen is completely absorbed within 4 weeks.
(3) Its efficacy is decreased in patients with thrombocytopenia.
(4) Is a bovine — derived collagen agent

23. Which of the following is true of vaginal estrogen preparation and recurrent UTI in postmenopausal women?
(1) The use of vaginal estrogen has been associated with an increased risk of breast cancer
(2) Vaginal estrogen use can confer an increased risk of thrombotic events in women
(3) Vaginal estrogen preparation can help with vaginal pain symptoms that can be conflated for UTI but do not modulate UTI risk independently
(4) The effect of vaginal estrogen on recurrent UTI risk are related to modulation of local pH and vaginal microflora

24. Treatment of choice in patient with uric acid calculi –
(1) Allopurinol
(2) Thiazides
(3) Potassium citrate
(4) Dietary calcium restriction

25. What is the best option for coverage of accute penile skin loss?
(1) Foreskin flap for small distal lesion
(2) Meshed skin graft in a young child
(3) Wet to dry dressings
(4) Thigh flaps

26. Risk factor for development of TVR syndrome include –
(1) prostate volume < 45yr
(2) failure to use isotonic, iso-osmolar irrigating solution and the bipolar electroresection system
(3) underlying hepatic dysfunction
(4) Preoperative use of opioids

27. Which one of the following does not help in prevention of TUR-P syndrome?
(1) Avoid capsular perforation
(2) Use of isotonic fluid
(3) Fluid height should be 60 cm above the patients
(4) Preoperative use of hemostatic medication

28. After colon mobilization for right sided transperitoneal retroperitoneal surgery, which plane should be developed prior to approaching to the renal hilum?
(1) medial to the gonadal vein
(2) Posterior to the gonadal vein
(3) Lateral to the gonadal vein
(4) Medial to the Inferior Vena Cava (IVC)

29. Which trial has provided the highest level of evidence supporting the oncologic efficacy of robotic cystectomy and lymphadenectomy?
(1) CALGB
(2) KEYNOTE
(3) RAZOR
(4) CHECKMATE

30. Micropapillary variant of urothelial carcinoma –
(1) has a clinical outcome like a pure urothelial tumor
(2) is an independent predictor of progression free survival
(3) is an independent predictor of advanced disease at diagnosis
(4) is an independent predictor of cancer specific survival

31. After ESWL — residual fragments of stones may lead to –
(1) Hypertension
(2) An increased rate of recurrent stones
(3) A decreased rate of recurrent stones
(4) Perinephric hematomas

32. Which treatment should be offered to patient having high flow priapism when all primary non-invasive options failed?
(1) Aspiration and intra cavernosal a-adrenergic drug should be injected
(2) Sapheno venous shunt proceducers
(3) Angioembolization
(4) Proximal corpus spongiosum and corpus cavernosum communication operation

33. Complications of intraoperative hypothermia are —
(1) Increase blood loss
(2) Increase possibilities of wound infection
(3) Increase in hospitalization stay
(4) Prolonged ileus
Select the night answer using the given codes –
(1) 1,2,3
(2) 1,2,4
(3) 1,3,4
(4) 2,3,4

34. Which statement is incorrect in relation to prostatic cancer?
(1) All cases of stage PT3b of prostatic malignancy SPSA found to be more than 20 ng/ml
(2) SPSA nadir value is associated with long term out come
(3) SPSA doubling time have bearing with survival
(4) PSA density is a key predictor of positive biopsy

35. All are first line therapy for management of OAB, Except –
(1) caffeine reduction
(2) behavioural therapy
(3) fluid reduction
(4) antimuscarinic. agents

36. Which is incorrect regarding radiological imaging of renal cell carcinoma?
(1) Contrast enhanced CT scan shows enhancement of more than 15-20 Hounsfield Units (HU)
(2) Contrast enhancement MRI shows 20% enhancement
(3) In complex Bosniak’s type IV renal cysts having calcification and nodule, MRI is more likely to detect renal cell carcinoma
(4) Multiparameteric MRI allows better staging of disease, clear cell renal carcinoma has low Apparent Diffusion Coefficient (ADC) value as compared to papillary carcinoma

37. Which one has little role in pathogenesis of benign prostatic hyperplasia?
(1) Androgen
(2) Estrogen
(3) Growth factors
(4) Stromal epithelial interaction

38. Most common viable malignancy in a post chemotherapy NSGCT relapse is –
(1) Teratoma
(2) yolk sac tumor
(3) choriocarcinoma
(4) adenocarcinoma

39. Which of the following occupation has the highest relative risk of bladder cancer?
(1) Tobacco worker
(2) Dye worker
(3) Chimney sweeper
(4) Rubber worker

40. Which one is correct about intravesical bladder cancer therapy?
(1) Perioperative intravesical chemotherapy reduces the risk of recurrence and progress of disease in low risk tumors
(2) BCG and chemotherapy have similar efficacy
(3) After bladder tumor resection chemotherapy should be given in all the patients.
(4) Intraversical BCG immunotherapy reduces both recurrence and progress of disease in high grade tumor

41. Most common risk factor for RCC –
(1) radiation therapy
(2) anti-hypertensive medications
(3) tobacco use
(4) diuretics

42. What percentage of kidneys can be non functional after 2 years 1f left untreated with stag horn stone?
(1) 25%
(2) 50%
(3) 75%
(4) 100%

43. Youstart second line ATT toa GUTB patient. After starting the treatment patient came in emergency with hallucinations, delusions and subsequently had one episode convulsion. Which drug is responsible for these side effects?
(1) Streptomycin
(2) Capreomycin
(3) Kanamycin
(4) Cycloserine

44. Most aggressive form of primary hyperoxaluria is –
(1) PH1
(2) PH2
(3) PH3
(4) PH4

45. True regarding use of CT in carcinoma prostate is –
(1) separation between levator ani muscle and prostate is clearly defined
(2) does not visualize early metastasis
(3) intraprostatic anatomy is well demonstrated
(4) all

46. What is wrong about type I posterior urethral value?
(1) May have associated renal dysplasia
(2) It’s leaflets arise from verumontanum and fuse anteriorly just distal to external urinary sphincter
(3) These are the hypertrophied inferior urethral crest formed by Wolffian duct
(4) Majority are sporadic but inheritance too as autosomal recessive

47. True for adrenal imaging –
(1) MRI imaging of the adrenal glands is slightly superior to CT in terms of spatial resolution
(2) Contrast resolution of MRI via T1 – weighted and T2 —weighted images is superior to that of CT
(3) On T1 — weighted images, the normal adrenal gland is difficult to distinguish from retroperitoneal adipose tissue because of the presence of intracellular lipid with the gland
(4) On T2 — weighted images, the normal adrenal gland has a uniform intermediate signal intensity that is slightly less intense than that of the liver and renal cortical tissue

48. An advantage of alprostadil for intracavernosal pharmacotherapy is –
(1) lower incidence of prolonged erection
(2) lower incidence of painful erection
(3) lower cost
(4) long term half-life once reconstituted

49. Which one is not the cause of increased specific gravity of urine?
(1) Diabetes mellitus induced glycosuria
(2) Intravenous injection of 1odinated contrast
(3) Deficiency of antidiuretic hormone
(4) Salt losing nephropathy

50. Which is nonurease producing organism?
(1) Proteus vulgaris
(2) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
(3) Enterococcus faecalis
(4) Candida humicola