Zoology Quiz

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Zoology Quiz

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Quiz Question Papers of Zoology

1. Given the gene sequence ABCDE crossing over should occur most frequently between :
1) A – E
2) A – D
3) A – C
4) A – B

2. Can a male be a carrier for a sex linked disease ?
1) Yes, if the mother & father of the male were carriers
2) No, males have only a single copy of sex linked genes
3) Yes, if the trait is recessive
4) Cannot be predicted

3. In which situation would you expect the mutation frequency to increase over time :
1) The deleterious effect of mutation is balanced with the mutation rate
2) A lethal allele is created at a high rate of mutation
3) A neutral allele is created at low rate of mutation
4) None of these

4. Cells which are used for Karyotyping in an adult are usually
1) White blood cells
2) Red blood cells
3) Epithelial (skin) cells
4) Nerve cells

5. Which of the following statements regarding Down’s Syndrome are correct : I. Mental retardation II. Wide round face III. Thick tongue IV. Caused by trisomy of chromosome 22
1) I , II , IV
2) I , II , III
3) I , III , IV
4) II , III , IV

6. Polyploidy may arise by several ways . Which of the following cannot produce polypolidy ?
1) Egg may be fertilized by more than one sperm
2) There may be failure of mitosis
3) Triploids may arise as a result of fertilization of unreduced gametes
4) Auto tetraploid may arise by fertilization between two haploid gametes

7. A woman with one gene for haemophilia and one gene for colour blindness on one of the X chromosomes marries a normal man . How will the progeny be ?
1) 50% haemophilic and colour blind sons and 50% normal sons
2) 50% haemophilic colour blind sons and 50% colour blind daughters
3) Haemophilic and colour blind daughters
4) All sons & daughters are haemophilic and colour blind

8. An individual with an XXY chromosomal complement in humans will develop as :
1) Male
2) Female
3) Hermaphrodite
4) Individual with no secondary sexual characteristics

9. The recessive genes located on X chromosome in human are expressed :
1) In 25% females
2) In 50% males 50% females
3) Only in males
4) Only in females

10. The prevention and treatment of diseases through methods like , germ line therapy , genetic testing is known as :
1) Pro eugenics
2) Reverse genetics
3) Positive eugenics
4) Negative eugenics

11. The negative eugenics attempts to eliminate the defective germplasm from the society. Which of the following method is NOT adopted for this ?
1) Sterilization
2) Control of immigration
3) Early marriage of those having desirable traits
4) Sexual separation of the defective

12. if a first generation sequence method for de novo sequencing is used. Which of the following template will give optimum results?
1) Bacterial artificial chromosome
2) Plasmid DNA
3) PCR product
4) Genomic DNA

13. Which statement is NOT correct regarding REPL and RAPD ?
1) Species specific primers are required for RAPD
2) RFLP is more reliable than RAPD
3) As compared to RFLP , RAPD is a quicker method
4) In RAPD radio active probes are not required

14. The gene transfer technique which involves the use of a fatty bubble to carry a gene into a somatic cell is :
1) Micro injection
2) Particle bombardment
3) Electroporation
4) Liposome transfer

15. The cDNA library consists of :
1) A database of gene sequences from an organism’s genome
2) A catalogue of commercially available DNA probes
3) A collection of vector DNA cleaved by restriction nuclease
4) A collection of closed DNA fragments in a vertor system

16. Which of the following are used to select genes of interest from a genomic library ?
1) Gene targetes
2) DNA probes
3) Cloning vectors
4) Restriction enzymes

17. What extra sequences are found in expression vectors that are NOT found in typical cloning vectors ?
1) Replication origins
2) Sites for restriction nuclease cleavage
3) Selectable markers like antibiotic resistance
4) Sequences that direct the production of large quantities of protein

18. How many potential open reading frames are present in a DNA sequence ?
1) One
2) Three
3) Six
4) More than six

19. The vectors commonly need for sequencing human genome are :­
1) YAC (yeast artificial chromosome)
2) Plasmid
3) CMV vectors
4) M13 vectors

20. A DNA finger printing process involves :
1) Chain terminators
2) Degenerated oligonucleotides
3) VNTR loci
4) RFLPs

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21. The secondary structure of RNA molecules :
1) Does not have an impact on function of the molecule
2) Depends on complimentary base-pairing
3) Can be described as interactions between portions of the back bone of the molecule
4) Is generated by covalent bonding between sections of the RNA molecule

22. Which of the following statement about the isoelectric focussing is correct ?
1) Proteins separated by isoelectric focussing can be tested for biological activity
2) Proteins separated by isoelectric focussing cannot be tested for biological activity
3) The separation of proteins by isoelectric focussing is only based on size
4) The separation of protein by isoelectric focussing is only based on charge

23. The equilibrium method that can be used to accurately determine DNA­protein dissociation constants is :
1) Site directed mutagenesis
2) Foot printing
3) EMSA (Electrophoretic mobility shift assay)
4) Chromatin Immunoprecipitation

24. Isolation of RNA is difficult due to its ability to degrade quickly . What is the main reason for RNA being unstable ?
1) Presence of RNAse
2) Negative charge of RNA
3) Single stranded nature of RNA
4) Stability of RNA at high temperature

25. Which process is used in an expression vector to increase yield of recombinant protein synthesis :
1) Translation intiation
2) Transcription terminators
3) Promotor induction
4) Multiple cloning sites

26. Which digestive juice does not contain an enzyme to digest the food stuffs ?
1) Pancreatic juice
2) Bile juice
3) Saliva
4) Gastric juice

27. Which of the following are correctly matched : I. Gastrin ­ stimulates the secretion of gastric juice II. Enterogastrone ­ stimulates the secretion of intestinal juice III. Cholecystokinin ­ stimulates the secretion of bile juice in liver IV. Enterocrinin ­ stimulates the secretion of succus entericus
1) I and IV
2) I and III
3) I and II
4) II and III

28. Intrinsic factor is present in which of the following digestive juice :
1) Saliva
2) Gastric juice
3) Bile juice
4) Pancreatic juice

29. What will happen if the human blood becomes acidic ?
1) RBC count will decrease
2) RBC count will increase
3) Oxygen carrying capacity of haemoglobin decrease
4) Oxygen carrying capacity of haemoglobin increase

30. Reabsorption from the thick segment of ascending limb of Henle’s loop is by:
1) Osmosis
2) Simple diffusion
3) Facilitated diffusion
4) Active transport

31. At the time of tissue infection , what type of WBC is first attracted from the blood into the tissue by process of chemotaxis :
1) Eosinophils
2) Basophils
3) Neutrophils
4) Monocytes

32. Blood clotting is a chain reaction in which a number of factors are involved . Which of the following factor is NOT correctly matched :
1) Factor I – fibrinogen
2) Factor III – thromboplastin
3) Factor V – stable factor
4) Factor IX – christmas factor

33. What is the first step in the transfer of energy when it is derived from creatine phosphate to cause muscle contraction ?
1) The energy of creatine phosphate is used to convert ADP into ATP
2) The creatine phosphate cause the power stroke of the cross-bridge
3) The creatine phosphate transfers its energy to the myosin filament
4) The creatine phosphate forms the actomyosin – ATP complex

34. When the length of the muscle remains constant but the tension increases sharply and no mechanical work is done , this is known as :
1) Tetanus
2) Muscle fatigue
3) Isometric contraction
4) Isotonic contraction

35. Sarcomere is the structural and functional unit of myofibrils which consists of :
1) I band in the middle with halves of two A bands on its sides
2) One A band and One I band
3) A band in the middle with halves of two I bands on its two sides
4) Two A bands and Two I bands

36. During conduction of an impulse, electric potential on the inside of axolemma changes from
1) Negative to positive and again negative
2) Negative to positive and remains positive
3) Positive to negative and again positive
4) Positive to negative and remains negative

37. In a reflex action afferent nerve fibres conduct impulses from :
1) Receptors to effectors
2) Effectors to receptors
3) Receptors to CNS
4) CNS to effectors

38. The cells responsible for colour vision in vertebrates are :
1) Bipolar cells
2) Ependymal cells
3) Rod cells
4) Cone cells

39. Thymus in infant mammals is mainly concerned with :
1) Regulation of body growth
2) Immunological functions
3) Regulation of body temperature
4) Control metabolism

40. Both organs of which set do NOT secrete hormones ­
1) Stomach and thyroid
2) Intestine and pancreas
3) Spleen and liver
4) Stomach and spleen

41. Gluco­corticoids sercreted from adrenal glands cause ­
1) Increase in protein and fat synthesis
2) Decrease in protein and fat synthesis
3) Increase in protein synthesis and decrease in fat synthesis
4) Decrease in protein synthesis and increase in fat synthesis

42. Which of the following is NOT correctly matched :
1) Hyposmia – reduction of sense of smell
2) Dysgeusia – absence of sense of touch
3) Anopia – complete loss of visual field in an eye
4) Tinnitus – ringing sensation in ears

43. Which hormone is present in the urine of a pregnant women ?
1) Progesterone
2) Follicle Stimulating Hormone ( FSH )
3) Estrogen
4) Human Chorionic Gonadotropin Hormone

44. If the value of variance is 64 , then the value of standard deviation would be ?
1) 4096
2) 8
3) 65
4) 64

45. The standard deviation of the given data 10 , 10 , 10 , 10 , 10 is :
1) 1
2) 10
3) 0.1
4) 0

46. A researcher selects a probability sample of 100 out of the total population . This is an example of :
1) A systematic sample
2) A cluster sample
3) A stratified sample
4) A random sample

47. The height of five students in cms is 165 , 170 , 142 , 174 , 148 . What is the median ? 1) 142
2) 148
3) 165
4) 174

48. The mean of a sample is :
1) Always smaller than the mean of the population
2) Always equal to the mean of the population
3) Calculated by summing all the data values and dividing the sum by the number of items
4) Calculated by summing the data values and dividing the sum by (n-1)

49. The values of correlation coefficient between two variables lie between :
1) -1 and 1
2) 0 and 1
3) 0 and α
4) – α and + α

50. Which is the first Immunoglobulin class to be produced in a primary response to an antigen.
1) IgG
2) IgE
3) IgA
4) IgM