Skin and V D Practice Set

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Practice Set of Skin and V D

1. Which of the following is not a pigmentary birthmark of neonates?
(1) Pigmentary mosaicism
(2) Dermal melanocytosis
(3) Nevus simplex
(4) Nevus anemicus

2. Omenn syndrome involves mutation in which gene?
(1) RAG-1 or RAG-2
(2) STAT-3
(3) LYST
(4) IKBKG

3. Which pregnancy Dermatosis is associated with no fetal risk?
(1) Pemphigoid gestationis
(2) Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy
(3) Pustular psoriasis of pregnancy
(4) Pruritic urticarial papules and plaques of pregnancy

4. Methenamine silver stains fungi is in which color?
(1) Red
(2) Black
(3) Pink
(4) Blue

5. PHACE includes all of the following, except –
(1) Posterior Fossa Brain Malformation
(2) Hair Anomalies
(3) Arterial Anomalies
(4) Cardiac Anomalies

6. A 35-year-old woman taking antidepressant came to skin OPD with complain of acute onset of monomorphic papule and pustule. On examination there was no comedone and cyst seen. Which TLR is elevated in this condition?
(1) TLR-2
(2) TLR-3
(3) TLR-7
(4) TLR-8

7. How much point in RegiSCAR scoring is a definite for DRESS?
(1) >4
(2) >5
(3) >9
(4) >3

8. Which of the following is most disabling complication of SJS — TEN?
(1) Corneal scarring
(2) Bronchiolitis obliterans
(3) Vaginal adhesion
(4) Esophageal stricture

9. How many percentage of Hutchinson lupus develop Systemic LE?
(1) 10%
(2) 20%
(3) 30%
(4) 40%

10. Disease of abnormal susceptibility to cold –
(1) Frostbite
(2) Perniosis
(3) Trench foot
(4) All of the above

11. Symmetrical Drug Related Intertriginous And Flexural Exanthema (SDRIFE) is a type of hypersensitivity reaction to drug, is –
(1) Type I Reaction
(2) Type II Reaction
(3) Type II Reaction
(4) Type IV Reaction

12. This is derived from Myroxylon pereirae –
(1) Thiomersal
(2) Balsam of Peru
(3) Colophony
(4) Thiuram

13. Which one of the following is least likely to cross react with Toxicodendron plant dermatitis?
(1) Cashew nut
(2) Mango rind
(3) Ginkgo treat
(4) Kiwi

14. Chronic toxicity of which of the following heavy metals causes peripheral motor neuropathy?
(1) Arsenic
(2) Lead
(3) Cadmium
(4) Chromium

15. Drug induced nail pigmentation is not seen in which of the following drugs?
(1) Antimalarial
(2) Tetracycline
(3) Phenothiazine
(4) Silver

16. Glomus tumour is –
(1) Actin -, Desmin +, CD 34 +
(2) Actin +, Desmin -, CD 34 +
(3) Actin +, Desmin -, CD 34 –
(4) Actin -, Desmin +, CD 34 +

17. What is false regarding Kaposi sarcoma?
(1) Paclitaxel is recently approved by FDA as first line treatment for advanced Kaposi sarcoma
(2) PAS positive, Diastase resistant, amorphous eosinophilia globules that are red on Mallory Trichrome stain
(3) Caused by HHV- 8
(4) CD31, 34, D2-40 IHL positive

18. All of the features are suggestive of malignant transformation, except –
(1) Induration beneath horn
(2) Inflammation beneath horn
(3) Increase in height
(4) Low height to base ratio

19. Neoplastic dyskeratosis is seen in –
(1) Darier’s disease
(2) Warty dyskeratoma
(3) Actinic keratosis
(4) Familial benign pemphigus

20. Ugly — duckling sign is seen in –
(1) Basal cell carcinoma
(2) Malignant melanoma
(3) Squamous cell carcinoma
(4) Lymphomas

21. Which of the following is not a feature of Cronkhite-Canada syndrome?
(1) Diarrhoea
(2) Alopecia
(3) Hyperpigmented macules
(4) Lung carcinoma

22. Which statement is not true about Lichen striatus?
(1) It occurs along the lines of Blaschko.
(2) Children and adolescents are most commonly affected.
(3) It is a self-limiting disease.
(4) Males are most commonly affected.

23. Which of the following is not an eccrine tumor?
(1) Hidradenoma
(2) Cylindroma
(3) Syringoma
(4) Tubular adenoma

24. Which is not true for oral leukoplakia?
(1) Strongest risk factor is tobacco
(2) It is the most common potential malignant lesion of the oral mucosa
(3) Cryotherapy is the first treatment of choice
(4) Leukoplakia is a clinical diagnosis of exclusion

25. Imiquimod acts as a –
(1) Toll like receptor 7 agonist
(2) Toll like receptor 2, 3 agonist
(3) Toll like receptor 7 antagonist
(4) Toll like receptor 2,3 antagonist

26. Which sign include thickened skin of palm and sole with enhanced deramatoglyphics change, causing velvety change?
(1) Leser trelat
(2) Florid cutaneous papillomatosis
(3) Music box sign
(4) Tripe palm

27. A male patient develops palmoplantar pustulosis and psoriasiform hyperkeratosis and asymmetrical large joint oligoarthritis with dactylitis and urethritis. It was associated with fever and malaise. What is the missing triad in this condition?
(1) HLA-B27 positivity
(2) Keratoderma blennorrhagica
(3) Circinate Balanitis
(4) Conjunctivitis and anterior Uveitis

28. Tetralogy of Fallot is main cardinal feature of which condition?
(1) Naxos syndrome
(2) Carney complex
(3) DiGeorge syndrome
(4) Wilson disease

29. Cutis Verticis Gyrata is associated with which endocrine disorder?
(1) Cushing syndrome
(2) Addison’s disease
(3) Acromegaly
(4) Glucagonoma

30. Sunburst pattern in dermatoscopy is seen is –
(1) Reed naevus
(2) Nevus spilus
(3) Compound naevus
(4) Malignant melanoma

31. Keratinocyte Chemoattractant for Paget’s disease is –
(1) TNF-β
(2) Haemoglobin
(3) Interleukin 8
(4) Heregulin

32. Which of the following is not a cutaneous marker of internal malignancy?
(1) Bullous Pemphigoid
(2) Acanthosis nigricans
(3) Erythema chronicum migrans
(4) Dermatomyositis

33. Which of the following is not a classical feature of vasculitis?
(1) Fibrinoid Necrosis
(2) Infiltration of neutrophils in vessel wail
(3) Presence of nuclear dust
(4) Excavation of platelet in vessel wall and dermis

34. Which of the following is not a feature of LEOPARD syndrome?
(1) Lentigines
(2) Delayed growth
(3) Endocardial defects
(4) Deafness

35. Terry’s nail are seen in all these conditions, except –
(1) Liver Cirrhosis
(2) Chronic Osteomyelitis
(3) Chronic liver failure
(4) Congestive heart failure

36. Which antioxidant is most abundant on skin?
(1) Vitamin A
(2) Vitamin B
(3) Vitamin C
(4) Vitamin E

37. Which one is a biological filler?
(1) Polyacrylamide
(2) Poly-L Lactic Acid
(3) Polyalkylamide
(4) Poly methy! méthacrylate

38. What is pharmaceutic name of Botox?
(1) Onabotulinum toxin type A
(2) Abo botulinum toxin type A
(3) Inco botulinum toxin type A
(4) Rima botulinum toxin type B

39. Which type of laser is used for skin resurfacing?
(1) Er: YAG 2940 nm
(2) PDL
(3) KTP 532 nm
(4) Alexandrite 758 nm

40. ‘Ultherapy’ is based on the principal of –
(1) Laser technology
(2) Ultrasonography
(3) Dermal fillers
(4) Radiofrequency cautery

41. For ‘cut and coagulation’ in dermatology, who devised first electrosurgical device?
(1) Dr Niels Ryberg
(2) William Bovie
(3) Irving Ellman
(4) Theodore Maiman

42. Jessner’s chemical peel comprises of all, except –
(1) Resorcinol
(2) Salicylic acid
(3) Lactic acid
(4) Glycolic acid

43. Who was the first person to create laser?
(1) Omer Ibrahim
(2) Jeffery S. Dover
(3) Theodore Maiman
(4) Leslie Baumann

44. What is the wavelength of diode laser used for hair removal?
(1) 810mm
(2) 1064mm
(3) 755mm
(4) 1450-1550 mm

45. All these depigmenting agents are Tyrosinase inhibitors, except –
(1) Vitamin C
(2) Soy
(3) Mulberry extract
(4) Kojic acid